In researching Hebrew, I found that a noun has to either be masculine or feminine. It appears that when you read Exodus 25:31 in the KJV, it is translated incorrectly with the masculine rather than the feminine.
For instance, the KJV translates Exodus 25:31 with the masculine “his” shaft, and “his” branches, “his” bowls, “his” knops, and “his” flowers.
This is a problem for me since it appears that the Hebrew actually contains the feminine “ah” sounding suffix associated with the nouns. It would seem to me that it should actually read “her” shaft, and “her” branches, “her” bowls, “her” knops, and “her” flowers.
Even though I do not speak/write Hebrew, if true, I find it hard to believe that this so called “perfect penmanship” of the KJV scribes could make such an error, if indeed they were under “Divine guidance” and “inerrant inspiration”. Here’s a link to compare the KJV alongside the Hebrew interlinear so you can start the research for yourself.
http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/OTpdf/exo25.pdf
If there are any Hebrew speakers reading this, a confirmation or denial of the KJV’s masculine rendering of Exodus 25:31 being correct or not would be helpful. Thanks.