Jaybird, God did say this! But, he said it in Greek, to a certain audience of one (Timothy) regarding a local situation. The KJV and all subsequent versions have missed translating “authentein” correctly.
It is a word that only appears once in the Bible. It is an infinitive - so “to ...... “ not “exercise authority over” which is a noun, a verb and a preposition.
It is an interesting word actually.
From Thayers unabridged work. I highlighted in bold his section on 2:12 ...
G831
αὐθεντέω, ἀυθέντω; (a Biblical and ecclesiastical word; from αὐθέντης contracted from αὐτοέντης, and this from αὐτός and ἔντεα arms (others, ἑντης, cf. Hesychius συνεντης συνεργός; cf. Lobeck, Technol., p. 121); hence,
a. according to earlier usage, one who with his own hand kills either others or himself.
b. in later Greek writings one who does a thing himself the author" (τῆς πράξεως, Polybius 23, 14, 2, etc.);
one who acts on his own authority, autocratic, equivalent to αὐτοκράτωρ an absolute master; cf. Lobeck ad Phryn., p. 120 (also as above; cf. Winers Grammar, § 2, 1 c.));
to govern one, exercise dominion over one: τινς, 1Ti_2:12.
Let's see what the BDAG cites.
αὐθεντέω (s. αὐθέντης; Philod., Rhet. II p. 133, 14 Sudh.; Jo. Lydus, Mag. 3, 42; Moeris p. 54; cp. Phryn. 120 Lob.; Hesychius; Thom. Mag. p. 18, 8; schol. in Aeschyl., Eum. 42; BGU 1208, 38 [27 B.C.]; s. Lampe s.v.)
to assume a stance of independent authority, give orders to, dictate to w. gen. of pers. (Ptolem., Apotel. 3, 14, 10 Boll-B.; Cat. Cod. Astr. VIII/1 p. 177, 7; B-D-F §177) ἀνδρός, w. διδάσκειν,
1 Ti 2:12 (practically = ‘tell a man what to do’ [Jerusalem Bible]; Mich. Glykas [XII A.D.] 270, 10 αἱ γυναῖκες αὐθεντοῦσι τ. ἀνδρῶν. According to Diod. S. 1, 27, 2 there was a well-documented law in Egypt: κυριεύειν τὴν γυναῖκα τἀνδρός, cp. Soph., OC 337–41; GKnight III, NTS 30, ’84, 143–57; LWilshire, ibid. 34, ’88, 120–34).—DELG s.v. αὐθέντης. M-M.
From what I see from what is shared above "to
usurp authority" definitely falls within the grammar and how the word was used in Antiquity considering usurp is a verb. Maybe "to be usurping authority" would bring out the present tense more clearly.
Thinking on what you shared in regards to domineer. That definitely falls in line figuratively with what Thayer shared: in that he said, " according to earlier usage, one who with his own hand kills either others or himself." But then so would usurp.
But I don't see them falling in line with later usage. When I think of the word domineer or usurping I think of abusive authority or dictatorship. I am not seeing that emphatically being stated above in the citations.
What do you think?
which is what the priestesses of Ephesus were doing.
What is that all about?
.
And when they became rabbis, then they were allowed to teach. And so were women, as we have many examples of women teaching in the NT.
Where are these examples? I am not aware of them that is why I ask.
Paul is true, and the Bible is true!
Amen!
We won’t even get into the fact that 2 disputed verses don’t make a doctrine. (Disputed because of translational issues, and things we don’t understand, not because the verses are not true, in the context they were written!)
Not sure where you are coming from, but from either side of the argument, Subjectivity is an ugly beast that quips it's tongue way to often in regards to Spiritual things.
Speaking of context I love the fact the Paul through the Spirit gave a reason for what he emphatically stated in that he said, "but I am not allowing woman to be teaching, nor to be dictating authority over man, but to be (in) quietness."
He reasoned through the Spirit, "
For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression."
(1Ti 2:13-14 KJV)
I had not read through this thread. So I am not aware of how everyone thinks on this issue. But Please note if we continue this dialog that I probably do not see as others or how you might think I do in regards to woman and ministry.