Mark 16: 9-20 inspiration, God or man?

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eternally-gratefull

Guest
The words Joseph spoke in Egyptian, Moses translated them into Hebrew, and that translation is inspired.
The book was written to the hebrew people, of course it would be written in hebrew, your example does not prove your point,
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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Again, the english language is incapable of translaring the greek and hebrew texts in a word for word form

Ignore this fact all you want, your just hurting yourself,

This argument is old, and you have yet to prove it wronf, so continue with your idol worship
I couldn't care less about a word for word translation. I speak English. I desire the very words of God in English and I've found them in the KJV.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
I couldn't care less about a word for word translation. I speak English. I desire the very words of God in English and I've found them in the KJV.
Then you do not care about the kjv, the kjv is a word for word translation of text using 1600 AD olde english language.

If you desired the words in english you would look for a text which adequitely interprets eath though and meaning of the word, of which few have tried yet non have succeded, because in all translations, people use their personal biases to translate certain words or phrases
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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I think I know what you are getting at. Give me an example.
That Joseph spoke Egyptian instead of Hebrew is evident by Genesis 42:23 "And they knew not that Joseph understood them; for he spake unto them by an interpreter." Joseph spoke in Egyptian yet his words are translated and recorded in another language, which turns out to be the inspired words of God.

A translation does not have to be a "word for word" literal carry over into another language for it to be the inspired word of God. If we have the God given text and the God given meaning of that text communicated by way of another language, as I firmly believe we do in the King James Bible, it is still the inspired word of God.

Again we see the same thing in Exodus chapters 4 through 14 where Moses confronts Pharaoh and speaks with him face to face. Pharaoh does not speak Hebrew, so Moses undoubtedly uses the Egyptian language in his verbal exchanges with him, yet the whole series of conversations is recorded in another inspired translation.

There are many more examples.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
The translation is inspired. Point proven. Translations can be inspired.
The origional text was inspired, it was not a translation.

Jospeh was not a translation or a book, what was translated into another language, it was god telling moses what to write in the origional text of the bible..your talking apples and oranges here

Wow. Just wow!!
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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The origional text was inspired, it was not a translation.

Jospeh was not a translation or a book, what was translated into another language, it was god telling moses what to write in the origional text of the bible..your talking apples and oranges here

Wow. Just wow!!
I'll give you yet another example.

In Acts 22 we see another clear example of how a translation can be the inspired words of God. Acts 21:40 tells us: "And when he had given him licence, Paul stood on the stairs, and beckoned with the hand unto the people. And when there was made a great silence, HE SPAKE UNTO THEM IN THE HEBREW TONGUE, SAYING...". There then follows a lengthly sermon of 21 entire verses preached by Paul in the Hebrew tongue, yet not a word of this sermon is recorded in Hebrew but in inspired Greek. Was Paul's sermon inspired? Absolutely! But God also inspired the translation of this sermon into another language.

If no translation can be inspired of God, then how do those who hold this unbiblical position explain all the Old Testament quotes found in the New Testament? They were originally inspired in Hebrew but then the Holy Ghost took these verses and translated them into another inspired language.

Not only that, but the Holy Ghost sometimes did not use a strictly literal word for word rendering. God sometimes adds a little more detail or explains further or makes a different application of the original verse to a new situation. This is how God does it and what the Bible itself teaches us about inspired translations.
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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That Joseph spoke Egyptian instead of Hebrew is evident by Genesis 42:23 "And they knew not that Joseph understood them; for he spake unto them by an interpreter." Joseph spoke in Egyptian yet his words are translated and recorded in another language, which turns out to be the inspired words of God.

A translation does not have to be a "word for word" literal carry over into another language for it to be the inspired word of God. If we have the God given text and the God given meaning of that text communicated by way of another language, as I firmly believe we do in the King James Bible, it is still the inspired word of God.

Again we see the same thing in Exodus chapters 4 through 14 where Moses confronts Pharaoh and speaks with him face to face. Pharaoh does not speak Hebrew, so Moses undoubtedly uses the Egyptian language in his verbal exchanges with him, yet the whole series of conversations is recorded in another inspired translation.

There are many more examples.
Yes, there are such examples of inspired translations of individuals in scripture but, that is not the same thing as an inspired translation of scripture into another language. Surely you an see the difference. There is no such thing as an inspired translation of the Bible.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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Yes, there are such examples of inspired translations of individuals in scripture but, that is not the same thing as an inspired translation of scripture into another language. Surely you an see the difference. There is no such thing as an inspired translation of the Bible.
At least you agree that translations can be inspired when God is involved. I can accept your belief about doubting that we have a bible today inspired in the English language. Thanks for sharing.
 
W

WIbaptist

Guest
WOW.......what a cop out............sigh............

You are treading on dangerous ground Sir, when you set out to REVISE the Holy Bible............
Yes, it’s just me. There are no others who have come to the same conclusion. No biblical scholars or historians. Just me and my crackpot theory.
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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At least you agree that translations can be inspired when God is involved. I can accept your belief about doubting that we have a bible today inspired in the English language. Thanks for sharing.
Let me ask you a question. I take it you believe the KJV to be an inspired translation, and indeed, the only inspired translation. It that true?
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
I'll give you yet another example.

In Acts 22 we see another clear example of how a translation can be the inspired words of God. Acts 21:40 tells us: "And when he had given him licence, Paul stood on the stairs, and beckoned with the hand unto the people. And when there was made a great silence, HE SPAKE UNTO THEM IN THE HEBREW TONGUE, SAYING...". There then follows a lengthly sermon of 21 entire verses preached by Paul in the Hebrew tongue, yet not a word of this sermon is recorded in Hebrew but in inspired Greek. Was Paul's sermon inspired? Absolutely! But God also inspired the translation of this sermon into another language.

If no translation can be inspired of God, then how do those who hold this unbiblical position explain all the Old Testament quotes found in the New Testament? They were originally inspired in Hebrew but then the Holy Ghost took these verses and translated them into another inspired language.

Not only that, but the Holy Ghost sometimes did not use a strictly literal word for word rendering. God sometimes adds a little more detail or explains further or makes a different application of the original verse to a new situation. This is how God does it and what the Bible itself teaches us about inspired translations.
Thats not a translation of a book being inspired man, give it up.

Your trusting your soul to a bible written in a seriously flawed language, and then men who write it..thats sad.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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Let me ask you a question. I take it you believe the KJV to be an inspired translation, and indeed, the only inspired translation. It that true?
yes sir, at least in the English language
 
Dec 12, 2013
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The book was written to the hebrew people, of course it would be written in hebrew, your example does not prove your point,
The origional text was inspired, it was not a translation.
Jospeh was not a translation or a book, what was translated into another language, it was god telling moses what to write in the origional text of the bible..your talking apples and oranges here

Wow. Just wow!!
I am fairly confident that Joseph knew how to speak and understand Hebrew before he was sold into slavery.........and it is interesting to note that Moses penned the word exactly how many years after Joseph was dead and buried.......those that worship translations will never accept the fact that God only inspired HIS word to be penned in two primary languages.....with a little Chaldean and Aramaic "peppered" in........the simple truth is that they expect us to believe that God INSPIRED HOLY MEN to pen the word and then later inspired 54 false teachers, in a false religion, with direct orders from a pagan, witch burning, pedophile King to pen his word.......Yeah....not buying it......

It is a translation, transliteration with some of it copied verbatim from previous English versions....And this "the above" comes from one that uses a King James, yet goes to the original every step of the way....
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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Thats not a translation of a book being inspired man, give it up.

Your trusting your soul to a bible written in a seriously flawed language, and then men who write it..thats sad.
You still refuse to see that God has inspired translations throughout His "originals".
 
W

WIbaptist

Guest
yes sir, at least in the English language
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John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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I am fairly confident that Joseph knew how to speak and understand Hebrew before he was sold into slavery.........and it is interesting to note that Moses penned the word exactly how many years after Joseph was dead and buried.......those that worship translations will never accept the fact that God only inspired HIS word to be penned in two primary languages.....with a little Chaldean and Aramaic "peppered" in........the simple truth is that they expect us to believe that God INSPIRED HOLY MEN to pen the word and then later inspired 54 false teachers, in a false religion, with direct orders from a pagan, witch burning, pedophile King to pen his word.......Yeah....not buying it......

It is a translation, transliteration with some of it copied verbatim from previous English versions....And this "the above" comes from one that uses a King James, yet goes to the original every step of the way....
Yes Joseph spoke Hebrew. But what was said in the conversation that I posted was in Egyptian translated into Hebrew, and that translation is part of the inspired "originals." Did you not catch that? There are tons of other examples as well.
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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yes sir, at least in the English language
Interesting. Do you believe God inspired any translation of the Bible in any other language or does the KJV stand as the standard against which all other languages must conform?
 
Dec 12, 2013
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Yes Joseph spoke Hebrew. But what was said in the conversation that I posted was in Egyptian translated into Hebrew, and that translation is part of the inspired "originals." Did you not catch that? There are tons of other examples as well.
Moses wrote in Hebrew and was inspired by God to write in Hebrew......he did not translate some Egyptian Hieroglyphics into Hebrew....nor did he translate from some written Egyptian book detailing what took place....

What exactly is your point......the bible as originally written and FINISHED in the 1st Century A.D. was inspired in Hebrew and Greek......even though it gives the details and words recorded in numerous languages...such as Chaldean, Egyptian, Assyrian, Aramaic, Latin etc.....