The Wet Paint Principle (Freedom from sin)

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Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,491
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#81
I'm sorry but I do not know how to read Greek, and am not willing to take your word for what the scriptures REALLY MEAN, because you are claiming authority from the original languages.

That would provide for a cult-like mentality in which you, the amateur Greek or Hebrew scholar, are the cult-leader.
That's both wrong and self-refuting.

You trust the Greek ability of the KJV translators, but deny the possibility that anyone else can possibly know what the Greek means.
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
83
#82
That's both wrong and self-refuting.

You trust the Greek ability of the KJV translators, but deny the possibility that anyone else can possibly know what the Greek means.
I believe that God the Holy Ghost was intimately involved in the translation of every word that was translated in the kjv.

It is not necessary to know the Greek and Hebrew in order to have the unadulterated message of the gospel.

It is adequately given to us in the kjv.

This is not to say that some of what we find in the Greek renderings are not helpful in adding insight.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,491
13,799
113
#83
I believe that God the Holy Ghost was intimately involved in the translation of every word that was translated in the kjv.
Your belief is based on circular reasoning.

It is not necessary to know the Greek and Hebrew in order to have the unadulterated message of the gospel.
Irrelevant.
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
83
#84
Your belief is based on circular reasoning.
There are a lot of things that are based on circular reasoning, that are nevertheless true.

Irrelevant.
Actually, it is the point that I am trying to make.

In saying that it is irrelevant you are at least admitting that it is viable.

Thank you.
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
83
#85
There are a lot of things that are based on circular reasoning, that are nevertheless true.



Actually, it is the point that I am trying to make.

In saying that it is irrelevant you are at least admitting that it is viable.

Thank you.
I win! ;)
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,491
13,799
113
#86

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
83
#87
This isn't one of them.
Sure it is.

That the Holy Spirit was involved in the translation process is a given because God is both Omnipotent, and sovereign, and loving.

Because He is Omnipotent and sovereign, He is able to preserve His unadulterated message when it was translated.

Because He is loving, He was motivated to do so.

Now give me one good reason therefore, why God didn't preserve His unadulterated message when the kjv was translated.

It's irrelevant, as in immaterial to this discussion.
It is the point of this discussion.

The point, is that knowing the Hebrew and Greek isn't necessary for us to be able to receive the fulness of God's unadulterated message, of the gospel of Jesus Christ (the whole counsel of God).

Having a kjv is sufficient.

God didn't limit His message to "educated" amateur Greek and Hebrew scholars (who might be inclined to reject Jesus).

He gave it to the common people in their own language.

Because the "educated" scribes and Pharisees rejected Jesus; while the common people heard Him gladly.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,491
13,799
113
#88
Sure it is.

That the Holy Spirit was involved in the translation process is a given because God is both Omnipotent, and sovereign, and loving.
That's a fallacy called a non sequitur.

Because He is Omnipotent and sovereign, He is able to preserve His unadulterated message when it was translated.
What God is capable of doing is not the question; what He has done is.

Further, if you stand on this (flawed) reason, then you must concede that God also preserved His word through the development of other translations. You can't have one without the other.

Because He is loving, He was motivated to do so.
Irrelevant.

Now give me one good reason therefore, why God didn't preserve His unadulterated message when the kjv was translated.
The translators did not start with the entire Scriptures.

It is the point of this discussion.
No, it isn't. The point of the discussion is the original post. This is a side issue.
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
83
#91
What God is capable of doing is not the question; what He has done is.

Further, if you stand on this (flawed) reason, then you must concede that God also preserved His word through the development of other translations. You can't have one without the other.
Actually, because there is a kjv-only controversy, I contend that God is behind that controversy and that therefore He is contending specifically for the kjv as a translation that it is inerrant and inspired.

That He is capable of doing it is only one part of the equation. The other part is that He loves us.

Both things together indicate that He would not fail to preserve the unadulterated message of the gospel (the whole counsel of God) for the common people (see 1 Corinthians 13:8 (kjv)).

Nope.

The translators did not start with the entire Scriptures.
Where do you get that idea?

No, it isn't. The point of the discussion is the original post. This is a side issue.
Okay, be a bear about it. I will say that it is the point of the side issue that is being discussed.

The OP is only chapter one of my document.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,491
13,799
113
#93
Actually, because there is a kjv-only controversy, I contend that God is behind that controversy and that therefore He is contending specifically for the kjv as a translation that it is inerrant and inspired.
More folly.

Since there is a controversy about which trans-Atlantic steamer sank in April of 1912, God is contending for the Titanic rather than the Olympic (or vice-versa)? What utter rot!

That He is capable of doing it is only one part of the equation. The other part is that He loves us.
Two more non sequitur fallacies.

Both things together indicate that He would not fail to preserve the unadulterated message of the gospel (the whole counsel of God) for the common people (see 1 Corinthians 13:8 (kjv)).
Sadly, your grasp of logic is lacking. Though it might be simple ignorance on your part, the lack inhibits your ability to reason correctly.

Again, if you honestly believe what you claim, you would apply it to all translations, not just the KJV. It is not sound reasoning anyway, but you are even inconsistent in applying it.

Where do you get that idea?
Erasmus did not have the complete text of Revelation. The subsequent texts, referenced by the KJV translators, suffered the same problem.

The OP is only chapter one of my document.
You mean there's more of this codswollop?
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
83
#94
More folly.

Since there is a controversy about which trans-Atlantic steamer sank in April of 1912, God is contending for the Titanic rather than the Olympic (or vice-versa)? What utter rot!
You can take it or leave it.

I am saying that it is a possibility that the Lord is contending for the kjv. And I would say that for you, it bears looking into the controversy to see whether the kjv-only side has merit.

Because if it does, then God is indeed contending for it, by His Holy Spirit.

There is a strong possibility that believing in the kjv's inerrancy and inspiration as concerning doctrine is a part of the narrow way that is spoken of in Matthew 7:13-14; and that I am relating this to you by the Holy Spirit.

Also, as concerning your statement that I am preaching "more folly"...

I would encourage you to read and understand 1 Corinthians 1:18-29.

Two more non sequitur fallacies.
Nope.

Sadly, your grasp of logic is lacking. Though it might be simple ignorance on your part, the lack inhibits your ability to reason correctly.

Again, if you honestly believe what you claim, you would apply it to all translations, not just the KJV. It is not sound reasoning anyway, but you are even inconsistent in applying it.
The fact that there is a controversy over kjv-only means that I don't have to. Because if it is part of God's plan to contend for the kjv as being the only translation that is inerrant and inspired, then He brought the controversy into being so that people would have that truth.

If the controversy did not exist, then your logic would indeed have merit.

But the fact that God contends for the kjv means that the same logic does not have to be applied to other translations.

Because the issue is people knowing where to go for the unadulterated message of the whole counsel of God.

The logic can be applied to the kjv and not the modern translations because, since there is a controversy over the kjv, people are faced with a decision as to whether they will adhere to the kjv or else believe that modern translations are also valid.

Erasmus did not have the complete text of Revelation. The subsequent texts, referenced by the KJV translators, suffered the same problem.
That is news to me.

Why don't you educate me...

When did the complete text of the book of Revelation come into play, that we have in our Protestant Bibles?

You mean there's more of this codswollop?
It is not codswollop but edifying doctrine. But, because you are one who does not endure sound doctrine, I know that you will heap to yourself teachers to teach you what is contrary to what is taught in the document; or may even become one of those teachers.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,491
13,799
113
#95
You can take it or leave it.

I am saying that it is a possibility that the Lord is contending for the kjv. And I would say that for you, it bears looking into the controversy to see whether the kjv-only side has merit.

Because if it does, then God is indeed contending for it, by His Holy Spirit.

There is a strong possibility that believing in the kjv's inerrancy and inspiration as concerning doctrine is a part of the narrow way that is spoken of in Matthew 7:13-14; and that I am relating this to you by the Holy Spirit.

Also, as concerning your statement that I am preaching "more folly"...

I would encourage you to read and understand 1 Corinthians 1:18-29.



Nope.



The fact that there is a controversy over kjv-only means that I don't have to. Because if it is part of God's plan to contend for the kjv as being the only translation that is inerrant and inspired, then He brought the controversy into being so that people would have that truth.

If the controversy did not exist, then your logic would indeed have merit.

But the fact that God contends for the kjv means that the same logic does not have to be applied to other translations.

Because the issue is people knowing where to go for the unadulterated message of the whole counsel of God.

The logic can be applied to the kjv and not the modern translations because, since there is a controversy over the kjv, people are faced with a decision as to whether they will adhere to the kjv or else believe that modern translations are also valid.



That is news to me.

Why don't you educate me...

When did the complete text of the book of Revelation come into play, that we have in our Protestant Bibles?



It is not codswollop but edifying doctrine. But, because you are one who does not endure sound doctrine, I know that you will heap to yourself teachers to teach you what is contrary to what is taught in the document; or may even become one of those teachers.
Facepalm.jpg
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,491
13,799
113
#96
That is news to me.

Why don't you educate me...

When did the complete text of the book of Revelation come into play, that we have in our Protestant Bibles?
When John wrote it; likely some time around 65 AD.
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
83
#97
Erasmus did not have the complete text of Revelation. The subsequent texts, referenced by the KJV translators, suffered the same problem.
That is news to me.

Why don't you educate me...

When did the complete text of the book of Revelation come into play, that we have in our Protestant Bibles?
When John wrote it; likely some time around 65 AD.

When John wrote it; likely some time around 65 AD.
You're being a smartbutt.

Let me rephrase my question.

At what point, after Erasmus didn't have the full document of the book of Revelation, did the church receive it so that it ended up in our Bibles?
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,491
13,799
113
#99
That you wrote this yourself, and continue to bump it, is clear evidence of your overinflated view of your own spiritual insight. I read through the first post; it is very poorly written, scripturally unsound, replete with logical fallacies, and not edifying in the least. I couldn't tolerate reading the next three posts. Please, show some humility. If people choose to read this, and for some reason happen to approve, they will tell you.

Let another praise you, and not your own mouth (Proverbs 27:2).
 

justbyfaith

Well-known member
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
83
That you wrote this yourself, and continue to bump it, is clear evidence of your overinflated view of your own spiritual insight. I read through the first post; it is very poorly written, scripturally unsound, replete with logical fallacies, and not edifying in the least. I couldn't tolerate reading the next three posts. Please, show some humility. If people choose to read this, and for some reason happen to approve, they will tell you.

Let another praise you, and not your own mouth (Proverbs 27:2).
I have posted this on other message boards and did indeed receive high praise for what was written.