Favourite Bible Translations

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true_believer

Well-known member
Sep 24, 2020
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Gods word dosent change with political correctness, Ebonics, or the rapper out on the street corner

Gay still means Happy in my book
Well web isn't just silk from a spider's abdomen in the 21st century.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,502
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Because it reflects the spirit of Christ. No errors, no contradictions, a consistent message through and through. Word and number patterns that could never happen by chance.
Fallacy: circular reasoning.

I have refuted the claim of evidence by word or number patterns several times; I'm surprised you repeat it.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Please provide the scriptural evidence supporting your assertion.
1Pe 1:24 For all flesh is as grass, and all the glory of man as the flower of grass. The grass withereth, and the flower thereof falleth away:
1Pe 1:25 But the word of the Lord endureth for ever. And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you.
 
S

Scribe

Guest
The NIV, ESV dosent preserve the verses below in Gods word, they are preserved in the KJV

It's not a matter of let's hold hands and skip down the yellow brick road to the Kingdom of OZ

One translation is preservation, the other isnt

You cant have a Dollar bill without serial numbers, it's a (Counterfeit) of the true currency?

Below, Verses Missing In The Greek, Alexandian Text Type?

Matthew 17:21
Matthew 18:11
Acts 8:37
Roman's 16:24

I fully understand my english KJV that is supported by the Greek Byzantine Textual Family, including the text the church received and used (Textus Receptus)

I dont use the new translations, supported by the 1%< minority of manuscript evidence, in the Alexandrian Text Type

It's that simple, its not archaic words as you claim, its a completely foreign Greek Text, that the Church has never used or received.

Its that simple Byzantine v Alexandrian
You are not able to discuss it because you refuse to examine the source documents or consider the arguments of those who do. It is just "anyone who questions the KJV is denying the Inspired infallible Word of God" rhetoric and there you shall remain.

No need to act like you have a scholarly answer for your blind fanaticism. Just admit your blindly fanatical about the KJV and be done with the conversation.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Fallacy: circular reasoning.

I have refuted the claim of evidence by word or number patterns several times; I'm surprised you repeat it.
Maybe it was grand conspiracy by the KJV translators to make that happen I guess. I rather think God led them to do it.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Meanings of words change It's not rocket science.
Well you think you would have less change in a few hundred years than you would in 2000 years. At least in English we're not constantly going to James Strong's opinion of what a word means.
 

Truth7t7

Well-known member
May 19, 2020
7,685
2,495
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But what about quit? Quit ye like men does not mean quit acting like a man, it means Act like a man. How about prevent? We will not prevent them that are asleep, (means go before) There are many examples. You will find yourself translating KJV to people you are talking to. Why? Because the English words have changed meaning. We must retranslate the Greek word to the current English word of that same meaning of the Greek word.
I fully understand my KJV, no need to lower the standards, to meet the english language in modern decay

Of course the liberals are trying to change the meanings of words, nothing new, smiles!

The Ten Commandments In Ebonics
  1. I be God. Don' be dissing me.
  2. Don' be makin hood ornaments outa me or nothin in my crib.
  3. Don' be callin me for no reason - homey don' play that.
  4. Y'all betta be in church on Sundee.
  5. Don' dis ya mama ... an if ya know who ya daddy is, don' dis him neither.
  6. Don' ice ya bros.
  7. Stick to ya own woman.
  8. Don' be liftin no goods.
  9. Don' be frontin like you all that an no snitchin on ya homies.
  10. Don' be eyein' ya homie's crib, ride, or nothin.
 

Lucy-Pevensie

Senior Member
Dec 20, 2017
9,386
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Once Again, The Argument Is Byzantine Vs Alexandrian

The Church used and received the Byzantine textual family, the Church didnt use the 1%< Minority Alexandrian Text that supports new translations, it's that simple

Westcott & Hort in 1881 didnt produce Gods truth in their Greek Text, that is supported by this Alexandrian Text Type

The Nestle-Aland didnt produce Gods truth in their Greek Text, using the Alexandrian Text Type

It's that simple, Byzantine Vs Alexandrian

Below, Verses Missing In The Alexandian Greek Text Type?

Matthew 17:21
Matthew 18:11
Acts 8:37
Roman's 16:24
But they are not missing from the English bibles you are persecuting.

There is less than 5% difference between the two families of texts in the first place.

Most modern English translations either footnote or bracket certain words, phrases, sentences, and a couple of paragraphs.
Only those which are not found in all manuscripts. This is honest & truthful on the part of the translators.

They are not "missing". Rather their presence/absence in various manuscripts are explained.
It’s not a major concern. No one is trying to hide or eliminate anything. And there is no "corruption."
No one reading the NASB or NIV is unaware of them.

But you are still wilfully avoiding the line missing from the KJV with no explanation.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,110
960
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But what about quit? Quit ye like men does not mean quit acting like a man, it means Act like a man. How about prevent? We will not prevent them that are asleep, (means go before) There are many examples. You will find yourself translating KJV to people you are talking to. Why? Because the English words have changed meaning. We must retranslate the Greek word to the current English word of that same meaning of the Greek word.
Seems you are in application of 2 Tim. 2;15 i.e. to "Study", however, I found faulty in your statement that there's a need to change the word. If you study as told then you can understand his words. But if you're diligent enough to change it that's sort a thing to change God's word.
 

Truth7t7

Well-known member
May 19, 2020
7,685
2,495
113
You are not able to discuss it because you refuse to examine the source documents or consider the arguments of those who do. It is just "anyone who questions the KJV is denying the Inspired infallible Word of God" rhetoric and there you shall remain.

No need to act like you have a scholarly answer for your blind fanaticism. Just admit your blindly fanatical about the KJV and be done with the conversation.
I fully understand the argument

The Church used and received the Byzantine Textual Family that supports the KJV

The Church didnt use and receive the Alexandrian Textual Family, the 1%< Minority of Manuscript evidence

In 1881 Westcott & Hort didnt bring Gods truth, in their created GreekText, Using the Alexandrian Manusctipts

Nestle-Aland didnt bring Gods truth in their created Geek Text Using the Alexandrian Manusctipts

Simple, Byzantine Vs. Alexandrian
 

Truth7t7

Well-known member
May 19, 2020
7,685
2,495
113
But they are not missing from the English bibles you are persecuting.

There is less than 5% difference between the two families of texts in the first place.

Most modern English translations either footnote or bracket certain words, phrases, sentences, and a couple of paragraphs.
Only those which are not found in all manuscripts. This is honest & truthful on the part of the translators.

They are not "missing". Rather their presence/absence in various manuscripts are explained.
It’s not a major concern. No one is trying to hide or eliminate anything. And there is no "corruption."
No one reading the NASB or NIV is unaware of them.

But you are still wilfully avoiding the line missing from the KJV with no explanation.
The verses mentioned in the NIV, ESV, are missing in the main body of the Text, they are mentioned in footnotes as being in (Other) Manuscripts/Texts

These verses are non-existent in the Greek text that supports these translations

To mention a verse in a footnote, dosent mean its included in the reading, sorry
 

Kavik

Senior Member
Mar 25, 2017
795
159
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So you believe that these guys who were speaking already knew how to speak all these languages?

Act 2:8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
Act 2:9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
Act 2:10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,
Act 2:11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God
Again, way off topic, so I won't go into details, but as a sort of overview, the so-called "list of nations" in verses 9-11 is just that; a list of geographical places. Specifically, the lands of the Diaspora (both Eastern and Western). It is not a list of languages. In fact, nowhere in the entire Pentecost narrative is even one language ever referenced by name, and nowhere does it imply that even though there were Jews from all over the Diaspora, that communication between them all was ever an issue to begin with.

One has to ask - if I were a Jew living in one of these places in the 1st century AD, what would be my native language, the language of "hearth and home", the language "wherein I was born"? Would it have ben a local language, or something else?

In a nutshell, the language of hearth and home for someone from the Western Diaspora was Greek. These countries had been Hellenized for centuries and Greek was beginning to be seen as an acceptable language for Judaism. For Judea, it was Aramaic, and for those of the eastern Diaspora....it was also Aramaic.

Though the Eastern Diasporan lands were never Hellenized, and each had its own language(s), they were never the language of 'hearth and home' for the Jews. The language of hearth and home, the language 'wherein they were born' was Aramaic. They of course spoke the local language in varying degrees of fluency, just like today's immigrants in the US do for English, but at home and amongst themselves it was Aramaic.

A lot of people, a lot of places, but for Jews amongst themselves, really only two languages: Greek and Aramaic, with Aramaic being by far the one most spoken.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Again, way off topic, so I won't go into details, but as a sort of overview, the so-called "list of nations" in verses 9-11 is just that; a list of geographical places. Specifically, the lands of the Diaspora (both Eastern and Western). It is not a list of languages. In fact, nowhere in the entire Pentecost narrative is even one language ever referenced by name, and nowhere does it imply that even though there were Jews from all over the Diaspora, that communication between them all was ever an issue to begin with.

One has to ask - if I were a Jew living in one of these places in the 1st century AD, what would be my native language, the language of "hearth and home", the language "wherein I was born"? Would it have ben a local language, or something else?

In a nutshell, the language of hearth and home for someone from the Western Diaspora was Greek. These countries had been Hellenized for centuries and Greek was beginning to be seen as an acceptable language for Judaism. For Judea, it was Aramaic, and for those of the eastern Diaspora....it was also Aramaic.

Though the Eastern Diasporan lands were never Hellenized, and each had its own language(s), they were never the language of 'hearth and home' for the Jews. The language of hearth and home, the language 'wherein they were born' was Aramaic. They of course spoke the local language in varying degrees of fluency, just like today's immigrants in the US do for English, but at home and amongst themselves it was Aramaic.

A lot of people, a lot of places, but for Jews amongst themselves, really only two languages: Greek and Aramaic, with Aramaic being by far the one most spoken.
Why were the people so amazed to hear them speaking in other languages?
 

Lucy-Pevensie

Senior Member
Dec 20, 2017
9,386
5,725
113
The verses mentioned in the NIV, ESV, are missing in the main body of the Text, they are mentioned in footnotes as being in (Other) Manuscripts/Texts

These verses are non-existent in the Greek text that supports these translations

To mention a verse in a footnote, dosent mean its included in the reading, sorry

If you can't read a sentence because it's placed in brackets on a page you are already reading that would be your inadequacy.
Nothing is hidden.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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If you can't read a sentence because it's placed in brackets on a page you are already reading that would be your inadequacy.
Nothing is hidden.
Why is it placed in brackets?