"Since, therefore, we have now been justified by his blood, how much more shall we be saved by him from the wrath of God." - Rom.5:9
"For they themselves report concerning us the kind of reception we had among you, and how you turned to God from idols to serve the living and true God, and to wait for his Son from heaven, whom he raised from the dead, Jesus who delivers us from the wrath to come. - 1 Thess.1:10
"But since we belong to the day, let us be sober, putting on the breastplate of faith and love, and the helmet of our hope of salvation. For God has not appointed us to suffer wrath, but to obtain salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ." - 1 Thess.5:9
The verses Rom 5:9, 1 Thes 1:10, and 1 Thes 5:9 do not explicitly demonstrate a rapturous deliverance from suffering God's wrath. Here's why:
Case 1)
Deliverance does not mean that one necessarily completely avoids suffering that thing, only that the end result is to be taken away from it (example Romans 7).
"O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?" - Romans 7:24 KJV
Case 2)
Deliverance that also
includes an avoidance of suffering does not necessarily mean one completely avoids being in the presence of that thing, only that they do not experience the ill effects (example: Daniel 3)
" If it be so, our God whom we serve is able to deliver us from the burning fiery furnace, and he will deliver us out of thine hand, O king. [...] He answered and said, Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God." - Daniel 3:17&25 KJV
1 Thessalonians presents an interesting dilemma. Was the message for the church of the Thessalonians (1 Thes 1:1) specifically or directed to Christians generally? If specifically to the church, case 1) of
deliverance is true. If to Christians in general, case 2) of the
deliverance is true. In either case, rapturous escape is not a necessary conclusion.
There are 4 ways to be delivered from suffering wrath:
1) Moved to a safe location (e.g. Noah's ark)
2) Be unaffected by suffering (e.g. the furnace in Daniel)
3) Sleep of death prior to wrath
4) Rapture into the sky
(Importantly, a deliverance of many people might utilize a mix of all four)
They also don't take into consideration that the word Ekklesia translated as church is never mentioned within the narrative of God's wrath. Yet in chapters 1 thru 3, it is the only word used.
I am not familiar with this reference.
And the fact that God does not punish the righteous with the wicked.
There are examples where God's wrath is applied to both righteous and wicked indiscriminately.
"And say to the land of Israel, Thus saith the Lord; Behold, I am against thee, and will draw forth my sword out of his sheath, and will cut off from thee the righteous and the wicked." - Ezekiel 21:3 KJV
It's actually a common misconception that God does not afflict punishment and injury on the righteous. Job is another example of a righteous man that faced many hardships there he considered to be punishments. There are specific instances including Sodom and Gomorrah where the righteous were completely spared, but that is not always the case.
Revelation 17:14 which reveals the church (the called, chosen and faithful followers) returning with the Lord out of heaven to the earth.
"These shall make war with the Lamb, and the Lamb shall overcome them: for he is Lord of lords, and King of kings: and they that are with him are called, and chosen, and faithful." - Rev 17:14 KJV
Two interpretations. Either it is a physical return of Christ, or it is the emergence of the body of Christ through the people on earth (a metaphor that diametrically opposes the figure of the Whore of Babylon as a metaphor for nations of people). Even if we look at the physical return of Christ, where is it indicated that called, chosen, and faithful are coming from heaven?
Even if these individuals were from heaven, did they appear there by means of a live bodily rapture? Or did they die and eventually ascend to heaven in events unrelated to the Day of the Lord?
further stated in Revelation 19:6-8 with the bride/church being at the wedding of the Lamb in heaven. And then in verse 14 shows the bride/church following the Lord out of heaven to the earth wearing her fine linen and riding on white horses.
"And I heard as it were the voice of a great multitude, and as the voice of many waters, and as the voice of mighty thunderings, saying, Alleluia: for the Lord God omnipotent reigneth. Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honour to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife hath made herself ready. And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints. [...] And the armies which were in heaven followed him upon white horses, clothed in fine linen, white and clean." - Rev 19:6-8&14 KJV
1) What indicates that the wedding feast takes place in heaven?
2) What indicates that heaven's armies are men rather than angels?
3) If heaven's army is composed of men, what indicates these men originated from a live/fleshly rapture on the Day of the Lord?
In writing to Titus, Paul referred to the Lord's appearing and our being gathered as the Blessed Hope. After he gave his detailed account of the living church being changed immortal and glorified and caught up, he said for us to "comfort each other with those words." That said, if the church were to be gathered after God's wrath, then it would not be a blessed hope, nor could we comfort each other with those words and that because we would be subject to the same wrath that the wicked would be going through.
"Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;" - Titus 2:13 KJV
Why would being subject to suffering wrath negate a blessed hope? Especially when Rev 20 shows that in part of the purification process of the saved that sadness and grief fade away? The end result is good even if troubled times exist between the start and finish.
"Oh, the wrath that is being spoken of is the wrath at the great white throne judgment," attempting to further make us believe that believers are not appointed to suffer that wrath, but that we will suffer the wrath that takes place on earth. The truth of the matter is that, believers in Christ are not to suffer any of God's wrath at all, because the Lord already suffered God's wrath on behalf of every believer, satisfying it completely.
This comes back to the 4 ways to be delivered from suffering wrath (and the question about the intended audience of 1 Thes 5:9).
Another amazing truth supporting a pre-tribulation gathering is that, as a punishment for anyone who adds to the words of the prophesies in the book of Revelation, God will add to that person the plagues of wrath listed in this book. Yet the post-tribbers would have the living church go through those plagues of wrath for no reason at all!
First, we must look at what is most consistent with scripture. Is pre-trib fleshly rapture consistent with scripture? Yes. Is post-trib fleshly rapture consistent with scripture? Yes. Is no-fleshly-rapture consistent with scripture? Yes. Can multiple disagreeing perspectives all be consistent with scripture? Yes.
Once we have determined what is consistent (logos) we then can assess which interpretation we personally find to be the most compelling (pathos/ethos). We may be superimposed over two or more opposing ideas, or may settle on one answer very quickly.
Voicing a preferred interpretation doesn't add words to the prophesies. But claiming that scripture definitively and explicitly agrees with your perspective (when it doesn't do so) might constitute adding to the prophesy. I think pre-trib rapture is a fine interpretation, but I have not seen any evidence that it is explicitly demonstrated in the texts to the exclusion of the opposing perspectives.