I recently read somewhere about the use of the King James Bible's use of the pronouns "that and who". It doesn't matter where because I forget the thread. I just think it needs addressed for those who care to use the accurate translation.
The thing that readers should realize is that Grammer and language in general is constantly changing. There are far more rules of Grammer than there were 400 years ago. Many pastors want to bend the past to fit their 21st century perspective sometimes. This is mostly because they spend their time reading commentaries that are promoting and sales of their particular competing translation.
As to the proper use of the pronoun" that" when addressing a person.
Example: John 3:18
"He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God."
verse 36
"He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him."
I'm not a Grammer teacher, but today we would say, "He who believes..." in these two cases. Is there much confusion as to the use of "that" here?
When I read the Bible, I look for context and usage elsewhere of the same words/ phrases to define the text. That usually clarified any questions. When words are used interchangeably in the English, this is often because the same is true in the Greek.
The thing that readers should realize is that Grammer and language in general is constantly changing. There are far more rules of Grammer than there were 400 years ago. Many pastors want to bend the past to fit their 21st century perspective sometimes. This is mostly because they spend their time reading commentaries that are promoting and sales of their particular competing translation.
As to the proper use of the pronoun" that" when addressing a person.
Example: John 3:18
"He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God."
verse 36
"He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him."
I'm not a Grammer teacher, but today we would say, "He who believes..." in these two cases. Is there much confusion as to the use of "that" here?
When I read the Bible, I look for context and usage elsewhere of the same words/ phrases to define the text. That usually clarified any questions. When words are used interchangeably in the English, this is often because the same is true in the Greek.
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