why did the KJV change this?
For we are not as many, which make merchandise of the word of
why did the KJV change this?
For we are not as many, which make merchandise of the word of God:
but as of sincerity, but as of God in the sight of God speak we in Christ.
(2 Corinthians 2:17 1560 GNV)
Hi Post, you might be in reference to the rendering of GENEVA Bible of “merchandise” whereas the KJV has the word “corrupt”. This needs tracing back for the purity of translation. While Geneva Bible is generally good and has the “merchandise” but we’ll look further to what is the historic timeline of English Bible translation to see what is the appropriate, pure. precise translation. Briefly, the English bible translation of Wycliffe 1382 was translated in the Latin Language to have it as to “adulterate”. This is important since the English word adulterate has the original meaning of corrupt, debase especially by admixture. It is first used dated 1531 and to have it later by 1590 to what is known today as to make adultery. The KJV is of course not yet in the scene and when it has been translated they consider the Latin Language of “adulterate”. Since the two meanings can be said true during their time, it is implicit that they have rightfully translated it as “corrupt” which does not convey the latter meaning of taking adultery. But that is from Latin to English.
Now, we go over to the older English translation before the Geneva of 1560.
First, the Tyndale bible of 1534, had translated it “chop and change”. Still though has the idea of trade perhaps merchandise. According to the Shorter Oxford Dictionary Vo. 1 p. 330, the word chop first evidence in “Chop church” which appears to have evolved from OE ceapian (cedpian) this means “to barter” to exchange as used in 1485 thus chop and change means to frequently change. Another meaning is to “buy and sell” yet the original meaning of chop in this trade is to barter not necessarily to mean buy. It is an exchange of goods to other goods. Common British, the phrase “chop and change” is briefly defined as “keep changing”. And this was Tyndale.
Second, The Coverdale Bible 1535 is of the same trade of using “chop and change”.
Thirdly, The Great Bible likewise have its translation of “chop and change”
Then the GENEVA 1560 used “merchandise” commonly use of buying and selling commodities for profit. It is indeed the GNV 1560 had it changes while at the outset it is good but the precision is not there. It changes from the common meaning of barter which is to exchange or change. But the Bishops bible of 1568 restores the “chop and change”.
The KJV 1611 did not change it because of what the GNV says so. It is the GNV that changes it. But what about the KJV? The usage of the KJV “corrupt’ is a translation and has considered every available material having diligently compared former Translations including the RC Version of the Douay Rheims.
English, is Germanic which belongs to Indo European Language and tracing it further to the 4th ce. Germanic Language of the Goths. The little wolf had translated from the Greek to Gothic language has “maidjadans” which simply means to change, to corrupt.
Corinthians II 2:17 Gothic Bible 4Ce.
A unte ni sium swe sumai
maidjandans waurd gudis, ak us hlutriþai, ak swaswe us guda in andwairþja gudis in Xristau rodjam.
https://books.google.com.ph/books?i...ec=frontcover&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q&f=false