All sinned, not in the sense all sinned in the likeness of Adam (see verse 14 last part), but all shared Adam's fallen life and therefore all came under the sentence of death (condemnation).
Besides, the people from Adam until Moses (where the law was given) knew nothing of the law and were therefore not charged with transgression. Guilt involves volition.
Hence "sin is not imputed when there is no law." Hence they weren't guilty of transgression. They were, however, sinners...just ignorant sinners.
Why do all people sin? Is it because they have a good heart or a deceitful and desperately wicked heart? Where did that heart come from and why is it filled with works of the flesh (Gal 5:19-21) that can defile a man when it proceeds out? These things that are in the heart of man described in (Mt 15 & Mk 7), how did they get there and when did these things enter the heart? Do not all these things described have something to do with the law? Take a look!
Mt 15:18-20
18 But those things which proceed out of the mouth come forth from the heart; and they defile the man.
19 For out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false witness, blasphemies:
20 These are the things which defile a man:
MK 7:21-23 (After the law was given)
21 For from within, out of the heart of men, proceed evil thoughts, adulteries, fornications, murders,
22 Thefts, covetousness, wickedness, deceit, lasciviousness, an evil eye, blasphemy, pride, foolishness:
23 All these evil things come from within, and defile the man.
Prov 4:23
23 Keep thy heart with all diligence; for out of it are the issues of life.
Gen 6:5,6 (Before the law was given)
5 And God saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually.
6 And it repented the Lord that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart.
How did all these evil things that relate to the law and its transgression get into the heart of man before and after the law was given to Moses? Are you going to tell us that adultery, murders and thefts (to name a few) that proceed from the heart (locative of sphere) do not violate the law that was given? Did not the Lord himself say that whosoever looks upon a woman to lust after her has already committed adultery with her in his heart (Mt 5:28)? The law is holy so before the law was given did not these things violate the heart of the law and the holiness of God? The law was given to reveal to man what was in his heart so that the whole world would become guilty of what...transgressions, trespasses, sin and iniquity, all in the heart, in the thought life of every man and in the imaginations of every man's heart.
Rom 3:19-23
19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin (1 Cor 15:56).
21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
BTW we the testimony of Rom 2:11-15...
11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another.
Rom 3:9-12
9 What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews (have the law)and Gentiles (are without the law), that they are all under sin;
10 As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one: (if none are righteous then all have transgressed with or without the law)
11 There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God. (none seeketh after God because their heart is deceitful and wicked)
12 They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one. (because they have not the goodness of God in their heart)
1 John 3:4,5
4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law. (the law can be transgressed without knowing it)
5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
If sin is a transgression of the law and by the law is the knowledge of sin, how was sin passed upon all men from that one man Adam when there was no law until Moses? We know that Adam transgressed with the woman and sin was passed upon all men, so what was the sin of all men from Adam to Moses? If not a transgression of the law then explain the sin of man from Adam to Moses. Was it a violation of conscience like the Gentiles in (Rom 2:15) as a work of the law written in their hearts? Did not those from Adam to Moses who sinned not have that same work of the law written in their hearts with their conscience bearing witness? Did they just live in sin and not realize it (by not having the law) and if that be true would not all their sin be sins of ignorance? In (Lev 4) were not the sins of ignorance also considered to be a trespass against the Lord (Lev 5:15-19)? Is the law greater then the Lord? If any man trespass against the Lord and another is found in transgressing the law will they both be guilty of sin and will not the law of sin and death reign in the members of their body?
