Some points to ponder:
=>Are all who are favored sinless?
Many men of God, including Noah found favor in the eyes of God.
In verse Luke 1:43, Elizabeth considered herself to be favored.
In Luke 1:28, Mary was said to be "highly favored."
Nobody else was given the title "Full of Grace" or "highly favored"
The great Baptist Greek scholar A.T. Robertson exhibits a Protestant perspective, but is objective and fair-minded, in commenting on this verse as follows:
"Highly favoured" (kecharitomene). Perfect passive participle of charitoo and means endowed with grace (charis), enriched with grace as in Ephesians. 1:6, . . . The Vulgate gratiae plena "is right, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast received'; wrong, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast to bestow'" (Plummer).
(Robertson, II, 13)
Kecharitomene has to do with God’s grace, as it is derived from the Greek root, charis (literally, "grace"). Thus, in the KJV, charis is translated "grace" 129 out of the 150 times that it appears. Greek scholar Marvin Vincent noted that even Wycliffe and Tyndale (no enthusiastic supporters of the Catholic Church) both rendered kecharitomene in Luke 1:28 as "full of grace" and that the literal meaning was "endued with grace" (Vincent, I, 259).
Likewise, well-known Protestant linguist W.E. Vine, defines it as "to endue with Divine favour or grace" (Vine, II, 171). All these men (except Wycliffe, who probably would have been, had he lived in the 16th century or after it) are Protestants, and so cannot be accused of Catholic translation bias. Even a severe critic of Catholicism like James White can’t avoid the fact that kecharitomene (however translated) cannot be divorced from the notion of grace, and stated that the term referred to "divine favor, that is, God’s grace" (White, 201).
Of course, Catholics agree that Mary has received grace. This is assumed in the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception: it was a grace from God which could not possibly have had anything to do with Mary's personal merit, since it was granted by God at the moment of her conception, to preserve her from original sin (as appropriate for the one who would bear God Incarnate in her very body).
The Catholic argument hinges upon the meaning of kecharitomene. For Mary this signifies astate granted to her, in which she enjoys an extraordinary fullness of grace. Charis often refers to a power or ability which God grants in order to overcome sin (and this is how we interpret Luke 1:28). This sense is a biblical one, as Greek scholar Gerhard Kittel points out:
Grace is the basis of justification and is also manifested in it ([Rom.] 5:20-21). Hence grace is in some sense a state (5:2), although one is always called into it (Gal. 1:6), and it is always a gift on which one has no claim. Grace is sufficient (1 Cor. 1:29) . . . The work of grace in overcoming sin displays its power (Rom. 5:20-21) . . .
Protestant linguist W.E. Vine concurs that charis can mean "a state of grace, e.g., Rom. 5:2; 1 Pet. 5:12; 2 Pet. 3:18" (Vine, II, 170). One can construct a strong biblical argument from analogy, for Mary's sinlessness. For St. Paul, grace (charis) is the antithesis and "conqueror" of sin (emphases added in the following verses):see more here
Titus 2:12 says nothing about redeemed sinner being full of grace (
=>Does grace make one sinless?
Grace as mentioned in Titus 2:12, motivates the redeemed sinner(believer)to say "No" to sin, as they wait for Christ's return.
kecharitomene) FULL of grace means more than just grace.
=>Are Jesus and Mary equals? Who is greater? Who should be given priority?
In Luke1: 31-33 Jesus (capital J) is given the position of deity by the angel.
In v 38 Mary considered herself to be the handmaiden(servant) of the Lord.
Guess who is the Lord of Lords!
Agreed, but you are operating under a false priority assumption. God is the focus of the Mass, and you will have to listen very closely for Mary's name, it's mentioned once in the creed (the same as in any Protestant church that accepts creeds) and once in the intercessory prayers. Check out a Mass sometime and see for yourself. All this Mary Mary Mary from anti-Catholics gets a bit tiresome.
In Luke 1:48, Mary considered herself to be a humble servant whom God noticed.
=>Who needs a saviour?
Is there even a single verse in the Bible where Jesus said, "my Savior?"
No! Because Jesus was sinless.
In Luke 1:47, Mary uses the words, "my Savior." (capital S)
Fine. Show me in scripture when Mary got saved, since salvation dates are so important to many of you. Did the angel Gabriel say, "POOF! you are now full of grace"? Of course Mary needed a savior, we don't pretend she is Full of Grace on her own merits. The angel said, "...the Lord IS with you..." he didn't say, "the Lord will be with you" so when was the Lord with her??? You won't find either in scripture, you have to use the brains that God gave you, and He expects you to use them.
=>Did Jesus' family (mother and brothers) understand his ministry initially?
Did Jesus understand his own ministry?
[SUP]20[/SUP]Then Jesus entered a house, and again a crowd gathered, so that he and his disciples were not even able to eat.[SUP]21[/SUP]When his family 2 heard about this, they went to take charge of him, for they said, "He is out of his mind."[Mark 3:20]
This verse has nothing to do with Mary's role in God's plan of salvation.
=>Did Jesus give Mary an exalted position?
[SUP]31[/SUP]Then Jesus' mother and brothers arrived. Standing outside, they sent someone in to call him.[SUP]32[/SUP]A crowd was sitting around him, and they told him, "Your mother and brothers are outside looking for you."[SUP]33[/SUP]"Who are my mother and my brothers?" he asked.[SUP]34[/SUP]Then he looked at those seated in a circle around him and said, "Here are my mother and my brothers![SUP]35[/SUP]Whoever does God's will is my brother and sister and mother."[Mark 3:31-35]
Yes, Mary is the perfect model of faith, she did the will of God. God incarnate entered her womb because of it. Jesus is using her, and anybody else who does the will of God, is his mother, brother and sister. It's part of Catholic Mariology that you can't seem to grasp. Now the only thing left for you to do is argue that Mary did not do the will of God.
[SUP]27[/SUP]As Jesus was saying these things, a woman in the crowd called out, "Blessed is the mother who gave you birth and nursed you."[SUP]28[/SUP]
He replied, "Blessed rather are those who hear the word of God and obey it."[Luke 11:27]
We see clearly that the Lord gave the Word of God priority over the person of Mary and above the belief of Mary, as the mother of God.
You don't see Mary doing the will of God and Jesus using her as an example for all of us?? Or is Jesus denigrating his mother in public thus violating the 4th commandment? Pick one.