King James Bible ONLY? Or NOT?
- Thread starter Dai3234
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I base my beliefs on what the bible ACTUALLY SAYS, not what I think it should say. Your opinion is Nebuchadnezzar was a pagan therefor he would have... Balaam's ass was an ass therfor he should have said hee haw.
It amazes me that people believe that God spoke through an ass but he couldn't speak through Nebuchadnezzar to show that God is with us in our trials.
It amazes me that people believe that God spoke through an ass but he couldn't speak through Nebuchadnezzar to show that God is with us in our trials.
Yeah, to me to... I do not know how to search for it in English, I have it only in Czech.
But I found this, at least:
Strong's Greek: 3754. ὅτι (hoti) -- that, because
Point number 5.
But I found this, at least:
Strong's Greek: 3754. ὅτι (hoti) -- that, because
Point number 5.
John146, you would really do well to learn some basic logic. You believe the KJV is perfect, but you cannot prove it, and cannot (or at least have not) adequately defend it. Instead, you try to put the onus on your debate opponents, claiming incorrectly that we "have no absolute truth..." and "nothing to offer". This is not a logical extension of our views. You claim that "either one translation is perfect, or none is", failing completely to prove beforehand that there is a "perfect" Bible in English at all! You claim rightly that God promised to preserve His word, then stumble into the logical error that such preserved perfection must exist in English. You reject the idea that His preservation may be in a form other than what you can hold in your hand, yet you have no proof, not even a verse, to confirm that assumption.
Further, you claim that because the words in different translations are different words, that they lead to different truths, but you have not substantiated this claim with anything approaching a comprehensive study (presented here, that is). Quoting the presence or absence of a few words in a single passage is far from adequate!
You ignore, overlook, or outright reject sound logic and argumentation because, it seems, accepting it would leave you in an untenable position. You hold so tightly to the idea that the KJV must be perfect that you seem unable to grasp any reasoning which demonstrates otherwise. Honestly, it looks like your mind is closed.
You seem to begin with "the KJV is perfect" and then try to prove it. That is the essence of circular reasoning, and it is not valid. You may be convinced by it, but it doesn't stand up to careful investigation. I honestly wonder why you keep repeating yourself, when your arguments have been refuted or shown fallacious. I think you're basically a decent guy, from what I've seen in other threads, but I wonder why you hold so tightly to certain interpretations of certain passages (like the one quoted above), and thereby appear unable to consider your position objectively. Your "I do" works for you in the same way the Mormon "burning in the bosom" works for them: it sounds convincing, but it's subjective, and it doesn't stand up to examination.
Further, you claim that because the words in different translations are different words, that they lead to different truths, but you have not substantiated this claim with anything approaching a comprehensive study (presented here, that is). Quoting the presence or absence of a few words in a single passage is far from adequate!
You ignore, overlook, or outright reject sound logic and argumentation because, it seems, accepting it would leave you in an untenable position. You hold so tightly to the idea that the KJV must be perfect that you seem unable to grasp any reasoning which demonstrates otherwise. Honestly, it looks like your mind is closed.
You seem to begin with "the KJV is perfect" and then try to prove it. That is the essence of circular reasoning, and it is not valid. You may be convinced by it, but it doesn't stand up to careful investigation. I honestly wonder why you keep repeating yourself, when your arguments have been refuted or shown fallacious. I think you're basically a decent guy, from what I've seen in other threads, but I wonder why you hold so tightly to certain interpretations of certain passages (like the one quoted above), and thereby appear unable to consider your position objectively. Your "I do" works for you in the same way the Mormon "burning in the bosom" works for them: it sounds convincing, but it's subjective, and it doesn't stand up to examination.