Thank you for you reply
My meaning about Jesus was just conveying that he was showing us how to keep the Sabbath. That Gods laws teach us that its not bad to help someone on the Sabbath.
The thing is with Heb 4:4 Is that he was not teaching them to keep the Sabbath he was speaking to the Jews so he was only using the Sabbath to compare but his argument was not teaching the Sabbath its self. They already knew the Sabbath. So he was teaching about spiritual rest.
Verse 9 states the conclusion, already alluded to in v. 6. drawn from the line of argument begun in v. 3 to prove the assertions of vs. 1, 3. This line of argument may be set forth
1. As originally made to ancient Israel God’s promised “rest” included: (a) permanent settlement in the land of Canaan, (b) a transformation of character that would make the nation a fit representative of the principles of God’s kingdom, and (c) the role of being God’s chosen instrument for the salvation of the world (see Vol. IV, pp. 26–30; see on ch. 3:11).
2. The generation to whom the promise of “rest” was originally made failed to enter the land of Canaan because of unbelief (see on ch. 3:19).
3. Joshua did led the next generation into the land that had been promised (see on ch. 3:11), but because they were spiritually stiff-necked he could not lead them into the spiritual “rest” God intended them to find there (see on ch. 4:7, 8).
4. The same promise had been repeated in the days of David (v. 7). This was evidence that Israel had not, at that time, entered into the spiritual “rest,” and also that their failure to do so in the days of Moses and Joshua had not invalidated the original promise.
5. The ultimate accomplishment of God’s purposes is certain, despite the failure of successive generations (see on vs. 3, 4).
6. The writer’s earnest plea to God’s people of apostolic times to “enter into that rest” (vs. 11, 16) is further evidence that the invitation remained valid and that God’s people, as a group, had not truly entered into that “rest” even in apostolic times.
7. Accordingly, the promise of, and invitation to enter into, God’s spiritual “rest” remains valid (vs. 6, 9), and Christians should “labour therefore to enter into that rest” (v. 11).
It should be noted that the “rest” that remained in Christian times was the spiritual “rest” originally promised to literal Israel (see on v. 3). Obviously, what remains must have been there to begin with.
Just by the word you can not learn if this is talking about the Sabbath day only by context can you see this
1. Because Joshua could not lead Israel into spiritual “rest” (katapausis, v. 8), a sabbatismos (v. 9) remains for Christians. Consistency seems to require that what remains be the same as what was there to begin with. Because Joshua did not lead literal Israel into spiritual “rest” would be no reason for the Christian to observe the Sabbath.
2. From vs. 1, 6 it is clear that what remains for the people of God in New Testament times is a katapausis; in v. 9 it is said that a sabbatismos remains. To declare that what remains for “the people of God” is the weekly Sabbath, is to declare that what Joshua failed to lead Israel into was the weekly Sabbath.