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carpetmanswife

Guest
In what way have I been two faced?

EDIT: other than my profile picture. that does not count lol
well yeah that profile picture.....gotcha there! :p
 
D

Dread_Zeppelin

Guest
ok so in order for Jesus to be the one that died for you, that you might have life. He had to be the Perfect One. He had no sin! agree so far. ok let's look at what a few words can do or a lack of few words can do ..

Matthew 5:22 (King James Version)


22But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.



Matthew 5:22 (New International Version)

22But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother[a]will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to his brother, 'Raca,[b]' is answerable to the Sanhedrin. But anyone who says, 'You fool!' will be in danger of the fire of hell.




Footnotes:
  1. Matthew 5:22 Some manuscripts brother without cause
  2. Matthew 5:22 An Aramaic term of contempt
so the Niv points out that some manuscripts says" without cause" , but the manuscripts that they use don't or their verse would have read who is angry with his brother without cause will be subject to judgement. no big real here with you right, I mean so we have a cause to have anger or not what difference does it make. to you and me you may be right. But to someone who has to be perfect without sin , that will put him under that judgement it is a really BIG deal , so look at this.

Matthew 5:22 (New International Version)

22But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother[a]will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to his brother, 'Raca,[b]' is answerable to the Sanhedrin. But anyone who says, 'You fool!' will be in danger of the fire of hell.




Footnotes:
  1. Matthew 5:22 Some manuscripts brother without cause
  2. Matthew 5:22 An Aramaic term of contempt
Mark 3:4-5 (New International Version)



4Then Jesus asked them, "Which is lawful on the Sabbath: to do good or to do evil, to save life or to kill?" But they remained silent. 5He looked around at them in anger and, deeply distressed at their stubborn hearts, said to the man, "Stretch out your hand." He stretched it out, and his hand was completely restored.


the NIv just said that Jesus was subject to judgement, yeah a few words can mean or make a big difference, If Jesus sinned as the Niv said here then he was not the messaih. the one who could take away our sins, so what do you think now ????? now the Kjb still has Him without sin For he had cause to have anger at these doubtors, so one says that he sinned, one says that he is still perfect, there is a difference!!!!!!

Thaddaeus, in the NIV version the footnotes say "without a cause". All you have to do is look. And even if I didn't know that, it wouldn't effect my walk with God because I know not to be angry with anyone reguardless of whether they deserved it. Jesus was righteous, and He was allowed righteous anger. I am not Jesus, and do not desire to be an angry person.
 
S

Slepsog4

Guest
There is circular reasoning going on here based upon an assumption.

The KJV was the best for its day. This does not mean that it is inspired into the English language. The English of the KJV was not even the regular language of its day. It is a great representation of literary English for its precision in many ways.

There is significant value to keeping a copy handy. But to say that everyone must use it is a mere opinion with which many would disagree. Most English speaking Americans simply to not readily grasp the text. It is one step removed from being a full blown foreign language to them.

Some of the vocabulary is unfamiliar. Some of the syntax (word order, etc.) is foreign to them.

The struggle is very similar to what Paul said about speaking in tongues (1 Cor. 14).

vs. 2 "for no man understandeth him"
vs. 6 "if I come unto speaking with tongues, what shall I profit you"
vs. 7 "and even things without life giving sound, whether pipe or harp, except they give a distinction in the sounds, how shall it be known what is piped or harped"
vs. 9 "So likewise ye, except ye utter by the tongue words easy to be understood, how shall it be known what is spoken?"
 
M

Maranatha_Yeshua

Guest


Note, literal doesn't always mean most accurate.
 
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Harley_Angel

Guest
Awesome post M_Y!
 
Feb 3, 2010
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Ok....someone help me out...

I've noticed that KJVO folks tend to be conservative, sola scriptura believing, and distrustful of organized religion. I realize this is a generalization, but I think it is a pretty safe description.

So does anyone else see the irony? Here is a group of people who tend to distrust government placing huge amounts of faith in a translation commissioned by the King of England. It is almost as hard to imagine as Protestants making sola scripture a foundational part of their faith - faith in the Bible as their only sufficient authority, which was complied by the Council of Nicaea called by Constantine, ruler of the Roman Empire and attended by the leaders of the Roman Catholic Church, the official church of the Roman Empire.

That would be hard to swallow if I wasn't Catholic.
 
Jan 31, 2009
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Ok....someone help me out...

I've noticed that KJVO folks tend to be conservative, sola scriptura believing, and distrustful of organized religion. I realize this is a generalization, but I think it is a pretty safe description.

So does anyone else see the irony? Here is a group of people who tend to distrust government placing huge amounts of faith in a translation commissioned by the King of England. It is almost as hard to imagine as Protestants making sola scripture a foundational part of their faith - faith in the Bible as their only sufficient authority, which was complied by the Council of Nicaea called by Constantine, ruler of the Roman Empire and attended by the leaders of the Roman Catholic Church, the official church of the Roman Empire.

That would be hard to swallow if I wasn't Catholic.
i am not exactly sure what you said here and folks say they can't understand old english, but if you are inplying that the catholic church believes in sola scripture I thought the pope was the final authority, thus we have the individual intrepetation that the bible tells us not to have, and the roman catholic church was the ones that had people burnt at the stake trying to prevent the english translation from coming about, a religion that follows Christ, burn other people who are following Christ, so that they won't know what the Word of God said. that makes alot of Love thy neighbor, now don't it???
 
Jan 8, 2009
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I agree aspen it's a blatant contradiction. The KJV was written by and for the Church of England but most people who are KJV-onlyists are a) non-Trinitarians and b) believe in once saved always saved, and c) believe in a pre-trib rapture, ...as some examples. All of which are contrary to the beliefs and practice of King James and those who created the KJV.
 
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greatkraw

Guest
That is no longer true, not that it ever was entirely. The KJV does not reflect the majority. A case in point is the verse in I John, in which the vast majority of transcripts do noty say "there are three that witness in heave, the Father, the Word, and the Spirit." This does not make the KJV corrupt, not does it reflect negatively upon the translation. Just on the arguement against having a newer translation.
that is why I said largely

it is nearly the only verse of note
probably one or 2 words in revelation
apart from that the KJV IS the majority text
 
Jan 8, 2009
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wrong - the fact that it is attacked so vehemently indicates that people feel threatened by it

I have heard stories of it being used in exorcisms where the use of a new version does not have the same power
Then the NIV must be even more threatening, as it is the version that is mostly attacked for being a perversion and "satans bible".

thaddeus - it is very dangerous to call any bible a perversion, even if it contains only 20% of God's truth. Be warned.

And finally, you KJV-onlyists need to get off your high horse and back to reality. Millions of Christians in the world don't even have a bible let alone the privaledge to pick and choose which one they would prefer. You know that the KJV is only an English version, and only about 10% of the world speaks english.

Some versions such as the GNB were created purely because the KJV was too hard for non native english speakers to understand.
 
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greatkraw

Guest
Then the NIV must be even more threatening, as it is the version that is mostly attacked for being a perversion and "satans bible".

thaddeus - it is very dangerous to call any bible a perversion, even if it contains only 20% of God's truth. Be warned.

And finally, you KJV-onlyists need to get off your high horse and back to reality. Millions of Christians in the world don't even have a bible let alone the privaledge to pick and choose which one they would prefer. You know that the KJV is only an English version, and only about 10% of the world speaks english.

Some versions such as the GNB were created purely because the KJV was too hard for non native english speakers to understand.
I AM not KJV ONLY

I am received/majority text only

when they come out with one based on those let me know
the current modern (per)versions date back to Wescott and Hort
the text they use DOES NOT EXIST
it is an arbitrary amalgum of a handful of corrupt texts
 
Jan 8, 2009
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It is remarkable though, that despite having texts that don't exist :p, they are able to produce a bible versions which are 80-90% + accurate. Like I told Thaddeus, God won't be judging me for calling His Word perverted.
 
Jan 22, 2010
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I don't have to I have a true translation of the Word in mine language!!! PRAISE THE LORD !!!!!!!!!
Then why do you condemn me for having a translation of the Word in my language?
 
Jan 22, 2010
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Oh Nuhen.....you disappoint me!

Latin was the language of literate people in the West. If you knew how to read, you knew how to read Latin. In the High Middle Ages, the Vatican did crack down on heretical groups that were attempting to translate the Bible into their common language and common heresy. The fact is, the printing press advanced literacy greatly - Luther never planned to have his 95 Thesis printed and distributed, but when he saw the power of the printing press he decided to translate the Bible into German - and even he, an educated member of the clergy was tempted to remove Hebrews, James and Revelation because they did not appear to support his understanding of doctrine.

All of this is a far cry from KJO folks - Luther did not believe the Latin Vulgate to be inferior to his own.
Well, that bit of history I was taught at a fundamentalist Protestant school using A Beka, the Catholic hate-fest curriculum (meaning hating on Catholics, not Catholics hating on others), so I'm not at all surprised that I was wrong :p
 
H

HumbleSaint

Guest
I have a question. Do any of you believe that a Christian is a child or a son of God. If you do then you don't believe the NIV is accurate. Let me explain.

For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish, but have everlasting life. John 3:16 KJV

For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him, shall not perish, but have eternal life John 3:16 NIV

If you believe that Jesus is God's one and only Son, then how could you be a child of God? Does the Bible say that a Christian is God's son?

Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God....1 John 3:1

Beloved, now we the sons of God........1 John 3:2

That ye may be blameless and harmless the sons of God...........Philippians 2:15

For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God. Romans 8:14

That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair....Genesis 6:2

Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD........Job 1:6


Jesus is the only begotten Son, meaning he was the only Son that always was. He was God's Son from the beginning.

 
Jan 22, 2010
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I have a question. Do any of you believe that a Christian is a child or a son of God. If you do then you don't believe the NIV is accurate. Let me explain.

For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish, but have everlasting life. John 3:16 KJV

For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him, shall not perish, but have eternal life John 3:16 NIV

If you believe that Jesus is God's one and only Son, then how could you be a child of God? Does the Bible say that a Christian is God's son?

Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God....1 John 3:1

Beloved, now we the sons of God........1 John 3:2

That ye may be blameless and harmless the sons of God...........Philippians 2:15

For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God. Romans 8:14

That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair....Genesis 6:2

Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD........Job 1:6


Jesus is the only begotten Son, meaning he was the only Son that always was. He was God's Son from the beginning.
ALL translations have inaccuracies, including the KJV. The only version of the scriptures you can find that is completely infallible with no errors are the originals in Hebrew/Aramaic and Greek. Any time you translate into another language, you're going to have errors. There's no such thing as a "perfect" translation.
 
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HumbleSaint

Guest
ALL translations have inaccuracies, including the KJV. The only version of the scriptures you can find that is completely infallible with no errors are the originals in Hebrew/Aramaic and Greek. Any time you translate into another language, you're going to have errors. There's no such thing as a "perfect" translation.
Well, I would say that above discription is a pretty big error, I could give you countless other examples, but I am sure you would find a way to explain it away.
 
Jan 22, 2010
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Well, I would say that above discription is a pretty big error, I could give you countless other examples, but I am sure you would find a way to explain it away.
That's because you can't argue with facts, and the facts are that it is impossible to perfectly translate one language into another. You can just do as best as you can, but there will always be discrepancies.
 
M

Maranatha_Yeshua

Guest
I have a question. Do any of you believe that a Christian is a child or a son of God. If you do then you don't believe the NIV is accurate. Let me explain.

For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish, but have everlasting life. John 3:16 KJV

For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him, shall not perish, but have eternal life John 3:16 NIV

If you believe that Jesus is God's one and only Son, then how could you be a child of God? Does the Bible say that a Christian is God's son?

Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God....1 John 3:1

Beloved, now we the sons of God........1 John 3:2

That ye may be blameless and harmless the sons of God...........Philippians 2:15

For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God. Romans 8:14

That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair....Genesis 6:2

Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD........Job 1:6


Jesus is the only begotten Son, meaning he was the only Son that always was. He was God's Son from the beginning.

That doesn't have anything to do with the KJV being the most accurate English translation today. (Which it's not), but attacking the NIV is a bit off topic seeing how it's not the only *other* translation.