Regarding "authority" and various other selected verses, which people have chosen to post in this thread. These are the things God revealed to me in Seminary. I was reading the verse below, 1 Tim. 2:12, in my daily Bible reading, and I felt hurt and overwhelmed. Why would God call me to Seminary, and then not use me? It made no sense. I cried out to God, and the next day, I stopped in at a used bookstore, and God led me to 3 books on women in ministry.
Since then, I have accumulated many more books and scholarly articles. Those first three books explained the Greek, which I did not yet read, although my Greek studies have confirmed the truth of the way we are to read these disputed verses. Quite simply, there was an agenda when the KJV and many modern verses were translated. And that means some twisting in the translation process to make it say what God never meant it to say.
"I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet." 1 Tim. 2:12
The word AUTHORITY here is a hapax legomena in Greek. That means it appears only ONCE in the whole Bible. It is not the usual word in the New Testament for authority, which is exousia. (The word used in Matt 28:18)
Instead, we have a word which cannot be translated in terms of the way it is in other Bible verses, but translators have to turn to other contemporaneous sources to find out what the word means.
The word is authentein, (αύθεμτείν) in Greek. According to every scholarly source I have read, authentein means anything from "to act on one's own authority, to exercise authority, to murder, to domineer, to be an autocrat." So ALL of these terms suggest that a woman is not to be without God's anointing, nor dominate or be an autocrat over a man.
The best translation, which takes into account the infinitive status of authentein "to domineer' as opposed to turning into a noun, and having to add an extraneous verb like "exercise," for the verse to make sense. Authentein is not a substantive, and there is no justification for adding a verb that is not even in the verse.
"I do not allow a woman to teach, or to domineer over a man, rather, she is to remain silent." 1 Tim. 2:12 (my translation!)
Further, the word "silent" or ἡσυχίᾳ in this verse, is the same word the rabbis used when teacher their students. They were not allowed to teach, and were to remain silent. In other words, Paul is following the rabbinic tradition, and saying the women are not ready to teach, and they need to stop domineering men.
Contextually, this is very important, because Timothy was the pastor in Ephesus, which was the home of the goddess Artemis or Diana. The temple of Artemis was one of the seven wonders of the ancient world, and Paul had already had run-ins with their silversmiths, who resented that Paul was pulling people away from worship of Artemis and not needing their idols. (See Acts 19)
Now the big thing about these worshipers of Artemis, was that the temple was run by wild priestesses. They wore their hair long and unruly and they did some nasty things to men in the name of their idol.
So imagine if some of them get saved, or pretend to be saved, and came into a church, and start domineering and doing all kinds of cultic things. Well, I agree these women should not be in control. They should not be exercising authority over anyone. They need to unlearn a LOT of things!
So Paul was right to tell Timothy in a private letter, to kindly keep these women under control in Ephesus. Does this one verse apply to ALL women for ALL time? Well, I think it is best that neither men nor women dominate. So in that sense, it is universal. But because Paul picked this word - the ONLY time he used it in all his letters, he was not talking about any kind of authority given by God. That would be exousia. Instead, he was giving instructions for Timothy to take these new women converts in hand, and get them to listen and learn. Maybe later, some of them could be preachers and evangelists. Prisca was certainly a teacher of the word. Why would Paul commend her, if he wanted her to be permanently silent? It makes absolutely no sense!
"Greet Priscilla and Aquila, my co-workers in Christ Jesus." Romans 16:3
Note that Prisca or Priscilla is listed first, and in 6 other passages. (Acts 18:18, 19, 26, Romans 16:3, and 1 Tim. 4:19) Aquila is only listed first once in 1 Cor. 16:19. The person that was mentioned first, in Roman and Greek tradition, is the stronger partner or the one in charge. Prisca must have been a very knowledge woman concerning the Word of God, including the New Testament and spreading the gospel.
And as far as the qualifications for deacons, the passage in 1 Tim. 3 has also been very poorly translated. For one thing, the word "autos" (αὐτὸς) which is a close to the pronoun, HE, as you can get in Greek, does NOT appear at all in verses 1-7. In addition, it talks about "deacons" in" verses like 1 Tim 3:8, 10, 12 and 13. The word in Greek is Διακόνους, or diakonous, which means servant in the plural. It is also inclusive, so it could well be talking about women and men deacons. Verse 11 is most telling. Τhe ESV translates it as thus:
"Their wives likewise must be dignified, not slanderers, but sober-minded, faithful in all things." 1 Tim. 3:11 ESV
But this is in no way true to the Greek. The word used is γυναίκας, or gunaikas which in the UBS interlinear, actually has the word "deaconnesses" next to it. There is no "THEIR" in the passage in Greek. It is not in any way the "wives of the deacons" or "their wives." So it does give the qualifications for a woman - the same as a man!
The NIV comes much closer with:
In the same way, the women(deaconesses?) are to be worthy of respect, not malicious talkers but temperate and trustworthy in everything." 1 Tim. 3:11 NIV
As for 1 Tim. 3:2 "husband of one wife" is an admonition to the men who want to help out in ministry to NOT have more than one wife. It is simply not a prohibition that only men are allowed to be deacons.
If anyone is interested, I can parse the above verse in Greek, and explain what it means. And other verses!
As far as the office of pastor, I have yet to see anyone post a qualification for that office.
The big reference is Eph. 4:11:
"So Christ himself gave the apostles, the prophets, the evangelists, the pastors and teachers, to equip his people for works of service, so that the body of Christ may be built up 13 until we all reach unity in the faith and in the knowledge of the Son of God and become mature, attaining to the whole measure of the fullness of Christ." Eph. 4:11-13
There is no place in the entire chapter that Paul says only men can hold these positions. In fact, the Greek uses the word "Some" or τοϋς, which definitely includes both genders!! In addition, the word "pastor" does not actually appear in this verse. The word is ποιμένας or poimenas in this case. It means "shepherd"
So that is the low down. Once again, the Greek has nothing against women being pastors. The biases of translators has created this absolutely false doctrine that women cannot be preachers, leaders or in authority (exousia) in the church.
Really, what it really comes back to, is looking closely at who really has "pasa exousia" ALL AUTHORITY - and that is Christ!
"And Jesus came and said to them, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me." Matt. 28:18
As for me, I will continue to serve God however he calls me. He has given me gifts, called me and used me in so many ways. Why would I care what bad translations, and certain men who cling to wrong translations think? I am answerable to Christ, and I pray that he will use me, an obedient servant till the day I die.
PS Sorry for such a long post. I could not figure out a way to break it up!