Refuting Roman Catholicism

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
K

Kerry

Guest
#61
Okay Catholicism is works and has nothing to do wight the cross, in fact they do not recognize the cross only relics of it and say if you are good boy and come and sat five hail Mary's then you might make it. have you ever been to confession, well you confessed to the wrong person.
 
Apr 22, 2014
648
5
0
#62
Faith plus works for salvation is seen as this. The Grace of God is His giving us faith, hope, and charity. This is the saving power. The works must come, but what we mean by works is the obedience to God's will. Should we deny His will in our lives, we are rejecting God and His will, this creates a separation between God and us, by our doing not by His. This damns us, and it is these acts that Holy Mother Church defines as mortal sin.


The God given faith hope and love, Comes after one is born again.
Works don't save.
Catholics and other false religions try to self justify themselves by works in order to be saved.
 
Nov 30, 2012
2,396
26
0
#63
The God given faith hope and love, Comes after one is born again.
Works don't save.
Catholics and other false religions try to self justify themselves by works in order to be saved.
I can tell you read only what you wanted to read.
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
0
#64
ThomistColin said:
Elin said:
I think Jesus does present the Holy Spirit as being a divine person like Him or the Father.
Consider:
I. Jesus said that the Holy Spirit issued from the Father, like himself (Jn 15:26); i.e., he is of the same divine nature as the Father and himself.
II. Jesus also said the Holy Spirit was another comforter (counselor, advocate, helper), like himself (Jn 14:16-17, 25-26, 15:26, 16:7), all words denoting a person, and conveying thoughts of encouragement, support, assistance, care, and the shouldering of responsibility for another's welfare--all functions of persons.
III. He also presents the Holy Spirit as having the attributes of God:
omniscience - Jn 16:13; 1Co 2:10-11,
sovereignty - Jn 3:8; 1Co 12:11,
omnipotence - Mt 12:28; Ro 8:11,
omnipresence - 1Co 3:16.
IV.
And then Jesus refers to the Holy Spirit with personal pronouns (meaning person). He refers to the Holy Spirit as "him" or "he" (Jn 16:7, 8). Then in Jn 16:13-14, the neuter (impersonal) noun "spirit" (Gr: peuma), against all the rules of grammar, is given a (personal) masculine pronoun ("he"), which denotes personhood of the Holy Spirit.

Likewise, the NT gives attributes of personhood to the Holy Spirit:
intelligence - Jn 14:26, 15:26, 16:13; Lk 12:12; Ro 8:27, 1Co 2:12-13; 1Jn 2:20, 27,
will - Ac 16:6-7; 1Co 12:11,
affections - Eph 4:30,
sinned against - Mt 12:31-32; Ac 5:3.

The NT also shows the Holy Spirit performing actions of personhood, acting as a personal agent:
counseling, teaching, guiding, convicting, comforting - Jn 14:16, 26, 15:26, 16:17,
showing the future - Jn 16:13b; 1Tim 4:1; 1Pe 1:11; 2Pe 1:21,
testifying - Jn 15:26; Ac 5:32; Ro 8:16; Heb 2:4,
speaking - Ac 8:29, 10:19-20, 11:12, 13:2, 21:11,
deciding - Ac 15:28,
forbidding - Ac 16:7,
searching into secrets - 1Co 2:10,
appointing and sending out missionaries - Ac 13:4, 20:28,
interceding - Ro 8:26-27,
enabling - Ac 2:4; Ro 8:26,
leading - Gal 5:18,
generating Christ's body and soul - Mt 1:18.

I find the testimony of the NT to be conclusive that the Holy Spirit is a person.

V. And then the NT writers, as well as the OT writers, present the Holy Spirit as God:
Ge 1:2; Job 33:4; Ps 104:30 - the Spirit of God is identified with God in creation.
Isa 11:2 - the Spirit of God is called the Spirit of YHWH.
Ac 28:25 - the Adonai of Isa 6:8-10 is the Holy Spirit.
Ac 5:3-4 - lying to the person of the Holy Spirit is lying to God. 1
Co 2:11-14 - the Holy Spirit is the spirit of God who is from God.
Heb 3:9, 10:15 - attributes the words of YHWH in Ex 17:7 and Jer 31:33 to the Holy Spirit.
Ac 28:25 - attributes the words of YHWH in Isa 6:9-10 to the Holy Spirit.

So the NT presents the Holy Spirit is a divine person, and the third person of the Godhead of Father, Son and Holy Spirit.

Would you not agree that Jesus presents the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit bracketed together as the triune name of God: Mt 28:19 - "baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit."

Note that the NT in:
1Co 12:4-6 - uses all three interchangeably,
2Co 13:14 - links them in prayer for divine blessing.

Do you not think the NT conclusively presents three distinct and separate co-equal persons in revealing the nature of God?

This revelation is the heart of the Christian faith in God--three separate, distinct and co-equal persons in one God,
the Son sent by the Father (Jn 5:23, 36, 43)
and doing the will of the Father (Jn 4:34 5:23, 36, 43, 10:25, 12:49-50, 14:24, 17:4),
and the Spirit sent by the Father (Jn 14:26) and the Son (Jn 15:26, 16:7)
doing the will of the Father (Jn 14:26) and the Son (Jn 14:26, 16:7)
.

First, let me point out that in my other post on the justice of God, I did not mention that those who believe in Jesus Christ are not under the justice of God, for Jesus on the cross satisfied God's justice on their sin for them. So because God is just (Ro 3:26) does not mean that those in Christ are subject to it.

Now regarding my post above, don't you think, in light of the Scriptures I presented there, that it would be more accurate to say I like seeing the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit in the way they are presented in the word of God?
For instance, don't you know also that Muslims believe their Mohammad is the Comforter promised by Jesus?
So let me ask you a precise question: Do you believe it is possible for two independent beings (or persons, if you like) be unified to the point they look as having one will and one power towards any outsider?

All I can say, Kerim, is that I prefer the Biblical presentation of the Holy Spirit above over any other presentation or explanation.

And that I do not give myself the authority, or the liberty, to alter it in any way, or to disbelieve it.

I see myself as sitting under the Scriptures, not over them.

Hope you make it through the night.
Elin
 
Last edited:
Feb 21, 2014
5,672
18
0
#65
ThomistColin said:
Elin said:
I think Jesus does present the Holy Spirit as being a divine person like Him or the Father.
Consider:
I. Jesus said that the Holy Spirit issued from the Father, like himself (Jn 15:26); i.e., he is of the same divine nature as the Father and himself.
II. Jesus also said the Holy Spirit was another comforter (counselor, advocate, helper), like himself (Jn 14:16-17, 25-26, 15:26, 16:7), all words denoting a person, and conveying thoughts of encouragement, support, assistance, care, and the shouldering of responsibility for another's welfare--all functions of persons.
III. He also presents the Holy Spirit as having the attributes of God:
omniscience - Jn 16:13; 1Co 2:10-11,
sovereignty - Jn 3:8; 1Co 12:11,
omnipotence - Mt 12:28; Ro 8:11,
omnipresence - 1Co 3:16.
IV.
And then Jesus refers to the Holy Spirit with personal pronouns (meaning person). He refers to the Holy Spirit as "him" or "he" (Jn 16:7, 8). Then in Jn 16:13-14, the neuter (impersonal) noun "spirit" (Gr: peuma), against all the rules of grammar, is given a (personal) masculine pronoun ("he"), which denotes personhood of the Holy Spirit.

Likewise, the NT gives attributes of personhood to the Holy Spirit:
intelligence - Jn 14:26, 15:26, 16:13; Lk 12:12; Ro 8:27, 1Co 2:12-13; 1Jn 2:20, 27,
will - Ac 16:6-7; 1Co 12:11,
affections - Eph 4:30,
sinned against - Mt 12:31-32; Ac 5:3.

The NT also shows the Holy Spirit performing actions of personhood, acting as a personal agent:
counseling, teaching, guiding, convicting, comforting - Jn 14:16, 26, 15:26, 16:17,
showing the future - Jn 16:13b; 1Tim 4:1; 1Pe 1:11; 2Pe 1:21,
testifying - Jn 15:26; Ac 5:32; Ro 8:16; Heb 2:4,
speaking - Ac 8:29, 10:19-20, 11:12, 13:2, 21:11,
deciding - Ac 15:28,
forbidding - Ac 16:7,
searching into secrets - 1Co 2:10,
appointing and sending out missionaries - Ac 13:4, 20:28,
interceding - Ro 8:26-27,
enabling - Ac 2:4; Ro 8:26,
leading - Gal 5:18,
generating Christ's body and soul - Mt 1:18.

I find the testimony of the NT to be conclusive that the Holy Spirit is a person.

V. And then the NT writers, as well as the OT writers, present the Holy Spirit as God:
Ge 1:2; Job 33:4; Ps 104:30 - the Spirit of God is identified with God in creation.
Isa 11:2 - the Spirit of God is called the Spirit of YHWH.
Ac 28:25 - the Adonai of Isa 6:8-10 is the Holy Spirit.
Ac 5:3-4 - lying to the person of the Holy Spirit is lying to God. 1
Co 2:11-14 - the Holy Spirit is the spirit of God who is from God.
Heb 3:9, 10:15 - attributes the words of YHWH in Ex 17:7 and Jer 31:33 to the Holy Spirit.
Ac 28:25 - attributes the words of YHWH in Isa 6:9-10 to the Holy Spirit.

So the NT presents the Holy Spirit is a divine person, and the third person of the Godhead of Father, Son and Holy Spirit.

Would you not agree that Jesus presents the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit bracketed together as the triune name of God: Mt 28:19 - "baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit."

Note that the NT in:
1Co 12:4-6 - uses all three interchangeably,
2Co 13:14 - links them in prayer for divine blessing.

Do you not think the NT conclusively presents three distinct and separate co-equal persons in revealing the nature of God?

This revelation is the heart of the Christian faith in God--three separate, distinct and co-equal persons in one God,
the Son sent by the Father (Jn 5:23, 36, 43)
and doing the will of the Father (Jn 4:34 5:23, 36, 43, 10:25, 12:49-50, 14:24, 17:4),
and the Spirit sent by the Father (Jn 14:26) and the Son (Jn 15:26, 16:7)
doing the will of the Father (Jn 14:26) and the Son (Jn 14:26, 16:7).
Ms. Elin,

Yes, these various verses seem strongly to point to the sound conclusion that the Holy Spirit is indeed a person: Father, Son and Holy Spirit all have personalities; One God in Three Persons, and gloriously so.

Blessings.
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
0
#66
EDIT:

Kerim said:
Elin said:
I think Jesus does present the Holy Spirit as being a divine person like Him or the Father.
Consider:
I. Jesus said that the Holy Spirit issued from the Father, like himself (Jn 15:26); i.e., he is of the same divine nature as the Father and himself.
II. Jesus also said the Holy Spirit was another comforter (counselor, advocate, helper), like himself (Jn 14:16-17, 25-26, 15:26, 16:7), all words denoting a person, and conveying thoughts of encouragement, support, assistance, care, and the shouldering of responsibility for another's welfare--all functions of persons.
III. He also presents the Holy Spirit as having the attributes of God:
omniscience - Jn 16:13; 1Co 2:10-11,
sovereignty - Jn 3:8; 1Co 12:11,
omnipotence - Mt 12:28; Ro 8:11,
omnipresence - 1Co 3:16.
IV.
And then Jesus refers to the Holy Spirit with personal pronouns (meaning person). He refers to the Holy Spirit as "him" or "he" (Jn 16:7, 8). Then in Jn 16:13-14, the neuter (impersonal) noun "spirit" (Gr: peuma), against all the rules of grammar, is given a (personal) masculine pronoun ("he"), which denotes personhood of the Holy Spirit.

Likewise, the NT gives attributes of personhood to the Holy Spirit:
intelligence - Jn 14:26, 15:26, 16:13; Lk 12:12; Ro 8:27, 1Co 2:12-13; 1Jn 2:20, 27,
will - Ac 16:6-7; 1Co 12:11,
affections - Eph 4:30,
sinned against - Mt 12:31-32; Ac 5:3.

The NT also shows the Holy Spirit performing actions of personhood, acting as a personal agent:
counseling, teaching, guiding, convicting, comforting - Jn 14:16, 26, 15:26, 16:17,
showing the future - Jn 16:13b; 1Tim 4:1; 1Pe 1:11; 2Pe 1:21,
testifying - Jn 15:26; Ac 5:32; Ro 8:16; Heb 2:4,
speaking - Ac 8:29, 10:19-20, 11:12, 13:2, 21:11,
deciding - Ac 15:28,
forbidding - Ac 16:7,
searching into secrets - 1Co 2:10,
appointing and sending out missionaries - Ac 13:4, 20:28,
interceding - Ro 8:26-27,
enabling - Ac 2:4; Ro 8:26,
leading - Gal 5:18,
generating Christ's body and soul - Mt 1:18.

I find the testimony of the NT to be conclusive that the Holy Spirit is a person.

V. And then the NT writers, as well as the OT writers, present the Holy Spirit as God:
Ge 1:2; Job 33:4; Ps 104:30 - the Spirit of God is identified with God in creation.
Isa 11:2 - the Spirit of God is called the Spirit of YHWH.
Ac 28:25 - the Adonai of Isa 6:8-10 is the Holy Spirit.
Ac 5:3-4 - lying to the person of the Holy Spirit is lying to God. 1
Co 2:11-14 - the Holy Spirit is the spirit of God who is from God.
Heb 3:9, 10:15 - attributes the words of YHWH in Ex 17:7 and Jer 31:33 to the Holy Spirit.
Ac 28:25 - attributes the words of YHWH in Isa 6:9-10 to the Holy Spirit.

So the NT presents the Holy Spirit is a divine person, and the third person of the Godhead of Father, Son and Holy Spirit.

Would you not agree that Jesus presents the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit bracketed together as the triune name of God: Mt 28:19 - "baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit."

Note that the NT in:
1Co 12:4-6 - uses all three interchangeably,
2Co 13:14 - links them in prayer for divine blessing.

Do you not think the NT conclusively presents three distinct and separate co-equal persons in revealing the nature of God?

This revelation is the heart of the Christian faith in God--three separate, distinct and co-equal persons in one God,
the Son sent by the Father (Jn 5:23, 36, 43)
and doing the will of the Father (Jn 4:34 5:23, 36, 43, 10:25, 12:49-50, 14:24, 17:4),
and the Spirit sent by the Father (Jn 14:26) and the Son (Jn 15:26, 16:7)
doing the will of the Father (Jn 14:26) and the Son (Jn 14:26, 16:7)
.
Hi Elin, It seems you like seeing God (the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost) as a mystery that has nothing in common in our life... other than wrath I guess
That reminds me that in my other post on the justice of God, I did not mention that
those who believe in Jesus Christ are not under the justice of God,
for Jesus on the cross satisfied God's justice on their sin for them.
So because God is just (Ro 3:26) does not mean that those in Christ are subject to it.

Now regarding my post above, don't you think, in light of the Scriptures I presented there, that it would be more accurate to say I like seeing the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit in the way they are presented in the word of God?

For instance, don't you know also that Muslims believe their Mohammad is the Comforter promised by Jesus?
So let me ask you a precise question: Do you believe it is possible for two independent beings (or persons, if you like) be unified to the point they look as having one will and one power towards any outsider?
All I can say, Kerim, is that I prefer the Biblical presentation of the Holy Spirit above over any other presentation or explanation.

And that I do not give myself the authority, or the liberty, to alter it in any way, or to disbelieve it.

I see myself as sitting under the Scriptures, not over them.

Hope you make it through the night.
Elin

 
Last edited:

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
0
#67
To correct previous post.
 
Feb 21, 2014
5,672
18
0
#68
EDIT:


First, let me point out that in my other post on the justice of God, I did not mention that those who believe in Jesus Christ are not under the justice of God, for Jesus on the cross satisfied God's justice on their sin for them. So because God is just (Ro 3:26) does not mean that those in Christ are subject to it.

Now regarding my post above, don't you think, in light of the Scriptures I presented there, that it would be more accurate to say I like seeing the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit in the way they are presented in the word of God?


All I can say, Kerim, is that I prefer the Biblical presentation of the Holy Spirit above over any other presentation or explanation.

And that I do not give myself the authority, or the liberty, to alter it in any way, or to disbelieve it.

I see myself as sitting under the Scriptures, not over them.

Hope you make it through the night.
Elin



Hi Elin, It seems you like seeing God (the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost) as a mystery that has nothing in common in our life... other than wrath I guess
Ms. Elin:

Yes, particularly with the New Testament as the full expression of God's revelation, the Scriptures are our guide and authority, right?

Blessings.
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
0
#69
That's simple OSAS response, but I can't make the leap in OSAS and free will. In the end, I think we shall see each other in Heaven, and we'll find the truth and realize how unimportant it truly is.compared to loving the Lover of our souls.
Scripture presents God's sovereign actions not as violating the "free will" of man,
but as freeing man from his slavery to sin (Jn 8:34; Gal 3:22; Ro 11:32).
 
Feb 21, 2014
5,672
18
0
#70
Scripture presents God's sovereign actions not as violating the "free will" of man,
but as freeing man from his slavery to sin (Jn 8:34; Gal 3:22; Ro 11:32).
Ms. Elin: I would rather have my will liberated by grace, as Ephesians 2 shows! :)
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
0
#71
Elin said:
saved1975 said:
Elin said:
Catholic philosophy is precise in its distinction between acts and disposition, it is not blurred.

In the NT, "works" are acts of the law, not all actions.
I think you need to see, Rom 4: 5. Rom 5: 1. Eph 2: 8--9 Titus 3: 5., No mention of the law.
"Law" is not mentioned in every phrase referring to the law.
I never said law was mentioned in those verses, Neither is works for salvation.
So not all actions are works of the law.
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
0
#72
Kerim said:
Elin said:
All I can say, Kerim, is that I prefer the Biblical presentation of the Holy Spirit over any other presentation or explanation.

And that I do not give myself the authority, or the liberty, to alter it in any way, or to disbelieve it.

I see myself as sitting under the Scriptures, not over them.

Hope you make it through the night.
Elin
Kerim,

Is Christianity your only religion, or do you understand it according to another religion?

Elin
 
Apr 22, 2014
648
5
0
#74
So not all actions are works of the law.


There works of the law, and there are the catholic works, Then there is Faith works. [Or actions], Faith is an act.
Bartimaeus put works [Actions] to his faith when he cast away he garment, which was his licence to beg.

The ten lepers put actions to their faith by going to the priest.

Then there are the works of Jesus, That He said we would do.
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
0
#75
There works of the law, and there are the catholic works, Then there is Faith works. [Or actions], Faith is an act.
Bartimaeus put works [Actions] to his faith when he cast away he garment, which was his licence to beg.

The ten lepers put actions to their faith by going to the priest.

Then there are the works of Jesus, That He said we would do.
Yes, saving faith then results in obedience.

But it is the saving faith, not its resulting obedience that saves.

I think we are in agreement here.
 
May 31, 2014
179
0
0
#76
Yes, saving faith then results in obedience.

But it is the saving faith, not its resulting obedience that saves.

I think we are in agreement here.
Salvation is predicated upon the faith, i.e. absolute conviction, of obedience of the law which has been added.
"For it is not those who just hear the law who are righteous in God's sight, but it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous." Rom 2:13
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
0
#77
Salvation is predicated upon the faith, i.e. absolute conviction, of obedience of the law which has been added.
"For it is not those who just hear the law who are righteous in God's sight, but
it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous." Rom 2:13
And since no one can obey the law perfectly (Dt 27:26), "all those under the law are cursed" (Gal 3:10).

So God gave righteousness as a gift (Ro 5:17) to those who are in Christ through faith, by free grace (Eph 2:8-9).
 
Last edited:
May 31, 2014
179
0
0
#78
And since no one can obey the law perfectly (Dt 27:26), "all those under the law are cursed" (Gal 3:10).

So God gave righteousness as a gift (Ro 5:17) to those who are in Christ through faith, by free grace (Eph 2:8-9).
The law referenced in Rom. 2:13 is not the Sinai code. Paul is referencing the law that has been added after the Lord's ascension. It is only those who have the faith to obey this law who receive righteousness as a gift. There are no exceptions.
 

Atwood

Senior Member
May 1, 2014
4,995
53
48
#79
The law referenced in Rom. 2:13 is not the Sinai code. Paul is referencing the law that has been added after the Lord's ascension. It is only those who have the faith to obey this law who receive righteousness as a gift. There are no exceptions.
Now CX, What on earth is your proof for all that?

How do you know that what he posted is incorrect?

And since no one can obey the law perfectly (Dt 27:26), "all those under the law are cursed" (Gal 3:10).

So God gave righteousness as a gift (Ro 5:17) to those who are in Christ through faith, by free grace (Eph 2:8-9).


Rom 2:13 says nothing to contradict that.
 
K

Kerry

Guest
#80
Catholicism is works based just like Islam and buddahiist