Do You Commit Sin?

[Blain]

I really think people really need to start understanding what the true meaning of grace is from the spirit and not from the flesh. For in grace, freed from sin, we become the ultimate Christians, loving, understanding, tolerance, non judgemental, non condemning, and disciples of the word sharing it in its truest meaning.

When Christ was here, he judged the righteous, not the sinner. I am a sinner, therefore in Christ i am sinless for he was sinless.

I'm sure that is pretty heavy stuff for some to understand, but it is so simple when you get it from the spirit, and is so complicated when you try to understand it from the flesh mind.

God bless

If ppl put their righteousness in the law and how well they keep it their faith will fail. People couldn't do it before and so Jesus introduced grace

 

[KJV1611]

It depends on how you look at it- it is a yes and a no. No I don't sin in many of the ways I used to sin. And yes I am still getting rid of sinful habits. Yes I admit my faults because I have faults to admit. But I remain in the Blood, so any sin is immediately erased- therefore I am without sin. Christians do not continue to live in sin, and they "visit" sin less and less often as they grow. A Christian can go a long time without sinning. But sin can be plural or singular, once you have sinned one time, you are a sinner- just as you can steal one time and you are a thief.

But in Christ I am free of blemish and accusation. Praise be to God for that miracle. So those in Christ do not sin because His seed remains in them. He who knows the good he ought to do and does not do it sins. For example you know you shouldn't smoke. So you get on some program to start the process of quiting- which may take years. Still you are doing the good you know you ought to do. But what of those who don't try? I think sin has different contexts in different verses. If we all sin, why are there two groups of people- the righteous and the unrighteousness? And why does God say His people do not continue to sin? Because He knows they give effort, and that even if it took them a million years, they would quit that sin, if allowed the time. In the meantime, and for the sins already committed, God finishes the length where we fall short.

Grace is awesome! We are free from sin because all things are lawful for us... not to say that we should revel in sin but we don't have to beat ourselves up over missing the mark either. Who can lay any charge against us? Nobody! We are truly free from everything in Christ.

1Co_6:12 All things are lawful unto me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but I will not be brought under the power of any.

 

[KJV1611]

How can pride actually be used in your favor? A believer can be prideful according to your beliefs and still make it into heaven because they can commit an act of sin like pride in the body and yet,...... they are still saved. However, that is not true morality or righteousness, though. That is a license to sin. How far are we going to take this: "Hey... I sin in the body but not in the flesh" type false theology?" Does it include being an axe murderer? Surely, even you realize there are limits to the types of sin one can and cannot commit in order to be a true Christian. Yet, you say you are not under the Law. But all sin is transgression of the Law. Which would mean you are under some kind of Law to say that a believer cannot commit certain types of sin. In other words, you are essentially saying you are lawless up until the point that would not include those really really bad sins. But what you fail to understand is that when Paul said we are not under the Law.... he was referencing the Law of Moses. What you fail to understand is that Paul says in Romans 6 that we are forbidden to continue in sin. But........ why worry about sin... if Jack (the OSAS proponent) is not under the Law. Jack can live like the devil and be working for God's Kingdom. It doesn't matter what Jack really does. Jack can live life for himself and have a wishy washy mental belief on Jesus and live in sin (Because he likes the pleasure of his sin more than God). Yet the "Condemnation" in John 3:19-21 says Jack is condemned because he has not come to the light of Christ (really) because he loved the darkness of his own sin instead of the light of God.

I don't know how to make it any clearer than this:

1Co_6:12 All things are lawful unto me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but I will not be brought under the power of any.

Just read it and believe it! Paul said ALL THINGS are lawful for him. Just because something is lawful doesn't mean it wont have consequences. I'm like Paul... My conscious is clear, there is nothing to accuse me of and even though this is true, I wont be brought under the power of them as long as God gives me the grace to overcome.

 

[MarcR]

That seems strange to me that they both mean exactly the same thing.
If I practice law would it be proper to say I commit law also?
Or if I commit a murder does that mean I habitually practice murder?

We still speak of commiting things to memory when speaking of the practice necessary for memorization.

 

[slave]

Jesus introduced grace by giving us The son to Die on a cross and have complete victory over Sin and as He sits at the right Hand of the Father, placed there by the Father, we are seated there with Him as we believe in His free gift of Salvation...This is the premise now to what grace ends up doing for me in my life...Grace was not given to cover my sin, it was given to conquer sin. Completely and utterly.

And In our ignorance of trying to do something for God to earn favor, and, after He has shown us, thru the giving of the Holy laws that it cannot be us that accomplishes being able to fulfill these laws, we give way now to seeing our inability by ourselves to earn favor. So we die to the thought of that and adopt the new thought that only He can...but not only that He can but can completely!

So I throw my old spirit lifestyle away, Or kill it.. and merge my current badself with His spirit....His grace now forgives me in that utterly badself And, as a note, I will always have Satan trying to bring me back to sins nature and slavery to it,...but now, we are more than conquerers if we but live in the History of the grace of victory thru Christ Jesus...not the victory in Gods consideration to cover our sins inevitable in us all...This is not the Savior I know. My success doesn't contend with me at all..so to debate my ability or inability to not sin is irrelevant.....it contends with Christs ability to get the job done. And He can, and has...and once again will in my life.....

Can I succeed then in a sin free life? No, but He can and will in me.....still making it my life as I live it... Will I opt out, that depends on the measure of faith found in me. Do I have to? Never....Will I statistically? Well this is not my loop hole to the completeness of the option to succeed.

God does not take a survey of how many of us got the free and perfect victory down and create a curve as to how many %'s of us did so, then allow us to get in if 90% of me gets it...It is a all or nothing proposition. God will judge us on what opportunity we had to receive Gods free gift. Have we and that opportunity ?

He does recognize the statements made in here tho that wide is the path to destruction...yet narrow is the path to everlasting life. Many won't get the free gift..many will think they know they have it yet will not use it to finish the work set out in them, even tho success was guaranteed in Christ's History..to accomplish this for them. This is why God can say...we will be judged by what we did and did not do. For we are free in Gods grace and it is Christ in us that accomplishes that measure of judgement, if we but obey. Faith without works is dead. But thanks be to God I have not to worry about the victory personally. I rest only in Him to find it....Completely. We need to read Romans 6,7,and 8. All of them. For one without the conclusion of the next is a dead end.

 

[KJV1611]

So so beautiful of a post. Christian through and through. If only everyone could understand the spirit of the word as it was meant to be for us as in this post.

I have read the KJV and also am reading newer versions but i always refer to the KJV for that exact reason you stated. To keep it true to the word.

God bless

That's so kind... thank you very much for the encouragement. I hate to seem divisive with KJV but it's the only book I know of that accurately tells the story in a way that the true meaning can be understood.

 

[eyesonly]

That's so kind... thank you very much for the encouragement. I hate to seem divisive with KJV but it's the only book I know of that accurately tells the story in a way that the true meaning can be understood.

You are a blessing brother to bring this subject up, because it only takes a word or two as you shown in your initial post to change the whole meaning originally intended for by the Lord.

The ability man has to alter and deceive is truly a test for those true in Christ to keep it real to the original word as best as possible.

God bless

 

[ember]

I agree, the law is for everyone... male and female. I never said otherwise.
We are under grace.
David's soul was a female. Psa_34:2 My soul shall make her boast in the LORD: the humble shall hear thereof, and be glad.
I don't think David's soul is any different than any one elses soul so I would think all souls are female.
The law applied and applies to everyone except those under grace. Not sure why you asked that.

oh my

this is what happens when people who do not understand what translate means or how other languages are constructed, attempt to take upon themself the office of expert

I speak French...In English we say: The table is white. We have what is called gender neutral when referring to an object such as a table or a chair. However, if I were to switch to French, the table becomes female and the color white is spelled with a female designation.

If it were reversed and the table was masculine it would read like this" Le table est blanc.

But the table is designated female and that is what is happening with the word soul in Pslam 34:2



It is the same when translating from the original Bible languages

David did not have a female soul...are you really that unable to see past your own prejudice regarding the KJV?

Further, if the KJV was actually inspired translation and had the same weight as the original manuscript(s) then why is the soul of David rendered feminine? That has been corrected in other translations.

I don't think David's soul is any different than any one elses soul so I would think all souls are female.

I cannot begin to state how wrong and how far out in left field you actually are while believing you have the inside scoop

people who do the sort of the thing you are doing in this thread, are leading others astray and that is what I resent; that is why I even bother to respond in a nonsense thread like the one you have going on here

 

[ember]

The law applied and applies to everyone except those under grace. Not sure why you asked that.

Oh you are being coy now because you have a few people agreeing with you. I asked that because of what you state below:

Yes we are under the Spirit, and we are not under the law because the law is for the husband, not the woman. The bible refers to the soul as a woman. The soul is married to the flesh. Christ crucified our flesh and now our soul is loosed from the law of our husband and free to marry Christ.

the law is for the husband...and you try to somehow marry that to Christ as husband referring in some vague way to the marriage supper of the Lamb

I pray you are not actually in the position of teaching anyone as you are diverting people from the truth with your KJ inspired V. There is no such thing

 

[JesusIsAll]

If ppl put their righteousness in the law and how well they keep it their faith will fail. People couldn't do it before and so Jesus introduced grace

But aren't you failing to account for a few people here, who don't even go to the bathroom?

 

[Joshua_Generation]

ah yes, another well concealed KJ only post by none other than KJV1611.

<Sigh>

 

[KJV1611]

oh my

this is what happens when people who do not understand what translate means or how other languages are constructed, attempt to take upon themself the office of expert

I speak French...In English we say: The table is white. We have what is called gender neutral when referring to an object such as a table or a chair. However, if I were to switch to French, the table becomes female and the color white is spelled with a female designation.

If it were reversed and the table was masculine it would read like this" Le table est blanc.

But the table is designated female and that is what is happening with the word soul in Pslam 34:2

It is the same when translating from the original Bible languages

David did not have a female soul...are you really that unable to see past your own prejudice regarding the KJV?

Further, if the KJV was actually inspired translation and had the same weight as the original manuscript(s) then why is the soul of David rendered feminine? That has been corrected in other translations.



I cannot begin to state how wrong and how far out in left field you actually are while believing you have the inside scoop

people who do the sort of the thing you are doing in this thread, are leading others astray and that is what I resent; that is why I even bother to respond in a nonsense thread like the one you have going on here

I'm not very good with original language stuff, but I'm trying. נָ֫פֶשׁ, the Hebrew word for soul is feminine in Hebrew, which means the correct rendering of tiṯ·hal·lêl would be "her". My soul (feminine) shall make her (feminine) boast.... What am I missing? How does tiṯ·hal·lêl loose it's femininity in English?


Original Word: נָ֫פֶשׁ
Part of Speech: Noun Feminine
Transliteration: nephesh
Phonetic Spelling: (neh'-fesh)
Short Definition: soul


[TABLE="class: maintext, width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD="class: top, width: 17%, bgcolor: #0099FF"]Str[/TD]
[TD="class: top, width: 20%, bgcolor: #0099FF"]Translit[/TD]
[TD="class: top, width: 20%, bgcolor: #0099FF"]Hebrew[/TD]
[TD="class: top, width: 25%, bgcolor: #0099FF"]English[/TD]
[TD="class: top, width: 18%, bgcolor: #0099FF"]Morph[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="class: strongsnt"]3068 [e][/TD]
[TD="class: translit"]Yah-weh[/TD]
[TD="class: hebrew2"]בַּ֭יהוָה[/TD]
[TD="class: eng"]in the LORD[/TD]
[TD="class: pos"]Noun[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="class: strongsnt"]1984 [e][/TD]
[TD="class: translit"]tiṯ-hal-lêl[/TD]
[TD="class: hebrew2"]תִּתְהַלֵּ֣ל[/TD]
[TD="class: eng"]shall make her boast[/TD]
[TD="class: pos"]Verb[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="class: strongsnt"]5315 [e][/TD]
[TD="class: translit"]nap̄-šî;[/TD]
[TD="class: hebrew2"]נַפְשִׁ֑י[/TD]
[TD="class: eng"]My soul[/TD]
[TD="class: pos"]Noun[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="class: strongsnt"]8085 [e][/TD]
[TD="class: translit"]yiš-mə-‘ū[/TD]
[TD="class: hebrew2"]יִשְׁמְע֖וּ[/TD]
[TD="class: eng"]shall hear[/TD]
[TD="class: pos"]Verb[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="class: strongsnt"]6035 [e][/TD]
[TD="class: translit"]‘ă-nā-wîm[/TD]
[TD="class: hebrew2"]עֲנָוִ֣ים[/TD]
[TD="class: eng"]the humble[/TD]
[TD="class: pos"]Noun[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="class: strongsnt"]8055 [e][/TD]
[TD="class: translit"]wə-yiś-mā-ḥū.[/TD]
[TD="class: hebrew2"]וְיִשְׂמָֽחוּ׃[/TD]
[TD="class: eng"][thereof] and be glad[/TD]
[TD="class: pos"]Verb[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]

 

[ember]

I explained it for you

English has no gender designation for inanimate objects but other languages do...in the same manner, the word soul apparently has a female designation but that does not mean David was female inside

It does not matter that the KJ uses the word her...that is wrong...David was a MAN ...he had the soul of a man

Most other translations have soul rendered according to the gender and not as the KJ has it

You know, this is just a small thing, but an example of why you cannot make an idol out of a translation

I grew up on the KJV and I am very familiar with it...but I also use other translations and of course some are better then others

As an aside, does taking one single verse and making an assumption on it, actually create a plausible outcome?

 

[KJV1611]

I explained it for you

English has no gender designation for inanimate objects but other languages do...in the same manner, the word soul apparently has a female designation but that does not mean David was female inside

It does not matter that the KJ uses the word her...that is wrong...David was a MAN ...he had the soul of a man

Most other translations have soul rendered according to the gender and not as the KJ has it

You know, this is just a small thing, but an example of why you cannot make an idol out of a translation

I grew up on the KJV and I am very familiar with it...but I also use other translations and of course some are better then others

As an aside, does taking one single verse and making an assumption on it, actually create a plausible outcome?

Why would you say the soul is an inanimate object? The soul is more of a person than the flesh and bones. Flesh and bones die and rot but the soul gets redeemed and lives on forever. In reality the soul is the person and the flesh and bones are inanimate objects. But this is neither here nor there... I would like to know what the Hebrew readers read from the passage if you wouldn't mind telling me. Would someone reading this in Hebrew come away with "My soul shall make her boast"?

No I don't think you can take a single verse and make an assumption on it and in my opinion I haven't done that. We already know that the collective body of believers, "the church" is referred to as a woman. We also know that Jesus doesn't marry our flesh, he marries our soul. When I see that the bible calls David's soul a "her", it all comes together. The church is a woman because the church is the collective souls of all the believers.

Romans 7 is not a mystery to me any more. The Old Testament laws were nothing more than a shadow of good things to come. The good thing is... Christ crucified my souls husband, the flesh, and now his law has no dominion over me, I'm free to marry Christ.

Rom 7:1 Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?
Rom 7:2 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.

 

[DiscipleDave]

Any honest Christian readily admits that they still sin... it's human nature to sin and we all still have that nature. The fact is this verse does not say a Christian will stop practicing sin as the NASB puts it.



Trust me, the newer translations will always keep you in bondage and lead you to believe that you have to work and make yourself better. The KJV accurately puts it as "doth not commit sin", which is the absolute truth.

Christians still sin, but they do not "commit sin" because there is no such thing as committing a sin in a born again persons life. In order to commit a sin, one has to transgress the law.



There is no law for Christians (because our husband is dead and we are freed from his law) hence Christians do not commit sin. Don't let these newer translations rob you of your joy and freedom in the Lord... rest in the finished work of Jesus.

i do not knowingly or willingly commit any sins. if i do sin, it is not intentionally. Strange thing for Jesus to teach and say to a woman and a man to "Go and sin no more" if that was NOT what they were suppose to do. Is it not written to get rid of the sin that so easily besets you. Why would the Apostles teach us how NOT to sin, if it was not required for us to do so? But here is what sin is though, when you fail to LOVE ONE ANOTHER, you commit sin.

Under the old covenant you commit sin by breaking a law, statutes, or an ordinance. Such as if a person stole something from another, they commit sin because they break the law Thou shalt not steal.
Under the new covenant you commit sin by not Loving one another. Such as if a person stole something from another, they commit sin because they failed to love the one they stole from.

1Jn 3:22 And whatsoever we ask, we receive of him, because we keep his commandments, and do those things that are pleasing in his sight.
1Jn 3:23 And this is his commandment, That we should 1) believe on the name of his Son Jesus Christ, and 2) LOVE ONE ANOTHER, as he gave us commandment.
1Jn 3:24 And he that keepeth his commandments dwelleth in him, and he in him. And hereby we know that he abideth in us, by the Spirit which he hath given us.

Jesus only dwells in those who LOVE ONE ANOTHER, NOT those who fail to LOVE ONE ANOTHER.

^i^

 

[KJV1611]

i do not knowingly or willingly commit any sins. if i do sin, it is not intentionally. Strange thing for Jesus to teach and say to a woman and a man to "Go and sin no more" if that was NOT what they were suppose to do. Is it not written to get rid of the sin that so easily besets you. Why would the Apostles teach us how NOT to sin, if it was not required for us to do so? But here is what sin is though, when you fail to LOVE ONE ANOTHER, you commit sin.

Under the old covenant you commit sin by breaking a law, statutes, or an ordinance. Such as if a person stole something from another, they commit sin because they break the law Thou shalt not steal.
Under the new covenant you commit sin by not Loving one another. Such as if a person stole something from another, they commit sin because they failed to love the one they stole from.

1Jn 3:22 And whatsoever we ask, we receive of him, because we keep his commandments, and do those things that are pleasing in his sight.
1Jn 3:23 And this is his commandment, That we should 1) believe on the name of his Son Jesus Christ, and 2) LOVE ONE ANOTHER, as he gave us commandment.
1Jn 3:24 And he that keepeth his commandments dwelleth in him, and he in him. And hereby we know that he abideth in us, by the Spirit which he hath given us.

Jesus only dwells in those who LOVE ONE ANOTHER, NOT those who fail to LOVE ONE ANOTHER.

^i^

Hey that's pretty good Dave... I still knowingly and willing still sin sometimes. I'm not too concerned with sin in my life, I've learned that the Christian life is about loving God and loving people and has little to do with sin. That was the point of this thread. It's impossible for a believer to commit a sin because all things are lawful for Christians. I think it's a good idea to not sin and I think that's why Jesus told those 2 to go and sin no more.... however I doubt they were able to do it.

 

[Angela53510]

I'm not very good with original language stuff, but I'm trying. נָ֫פֶשׁ, the Hebrew word for soul is feminine in Hebrew, which means the correct rendering of tiṯ·hal·lêl would be "her". My soul (feminine) shall make her (feminine) boast.... What am I missing? How does tiṯ·hal·lêl loose it's femininity in English?


Original Word: נָ֫פֶשׁ
Part of Speech: Noun Feminine
Transliteration: nephesh
Phonetic Spelling: (neh'-fesh)
Short Definition: soul


[TABLE="class: maintext, width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD="class: top, width: 17%, bgcolor: #0099FF"]Str[/TD]
[TD="class: top, width: 20%, bgcolor: #0099FF"]Translit[/TD]
[TD="class: top, width: 20%, bgcolor: #0099FF"]Hebrew[/TD]
[TD="class: top, width: 25%, bgcolor: #0099FF"]English[/TD]
[TD="class: top, width: 18%, bgcolor: #0099FF"]Morph[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="class: strongsnt"]3068 [e][/TD]
[TD="class: translit"]Yah-weh[/TD]
[TD="class: hebrew2"]בַּ֭יהוָה[/TD]
[TD="class: eng"]in the LORD[/TD]
[TD="class: pos"]Noun[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="class: strongsnt"]1984 [e][/TD]
[TD="class: translit"]tiṯ-hal-lêl[/TD]
[TD="class: hebrew2"]תִּתְהַלֵּ֣ל[/TD]
[TD="class: eng"]shall make her boast[/TD]
[TD="class: pos"]Verb[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="class: strongsnt"]5315 [e][/TD]
[TD="class: translit"]nap̄-šî;[/TD]
[TD="class: hebrew2"]נַפְשִׁ֑י[/TD]
[TD="class: eng"]My soul[/TD]
[TD="class: pos"]Noun[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="class: strongsnt"]8085 [e][/TD]
[TD="class: translit"]yiš-mə-‘ū[/TD]
[TD="class: hebrew2"]יִשְׁמְע֖וּ[/TD]
[TD="class: eng"]shall hear[/TD]
[TD="class: pos"]Verb[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="class: strongsnt"]6035 [e][/TD]
[TD="class: translit"]‘ă-nā-wîm[/TD]
[TD="class: hebrew2"]עֲנָוִ֣ים[/TD]
[TD="class: eng"]the humble[/TD]
[TD="class: pos"]Noun[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="class: strongsnt"]8055 [e][/TD]
[TD="class: translit"]wə-yiś-mā-ḥū.[/TD]
[TD="class: hebrew2"]וְיִשְׂמָֽחוּ׃[/TD]
[TD="class: eng"][thereof] and be glad[/TD]
[TD="class: pos"]Verb[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]

"My soul makes its boast in the Lord;
let the humble hear and be glad." Psalm 34:2

While the word for "nephesh" or soul is a feminine noun, that does not in fact make the soul feminine. It merely means that some words are feminine and others masculine in Hebrew, and there really is no rhyme or reason, although I have spent considerable time trying to figure out the logic for the gender of the nouns.

Really, it comes down to the fact, that in languages that use masculine, feminine and neuter, it is called gender, not sexual identity.

So basically, when translating to a language like English, which has no gender identity with the nouns, unless it is a person, the neuter is used.

Of course, that might have been a different convention back in the 16th century when the KJV was translated.

 

[KJV1611]

"My soul makes its boast in the Lord;
let the humble hear and be glad." Psalm 34:2

While the word for "nephesh" or soul is a feminine noun, that does not in fact make the soul feminine. It merely means that some words are feminine and others masculine in Hebrew, and there really is no rhyme or reason, although I have spent considerable time trying to figure out the logic for the gender of the nouns.

Really, it comes down to the fact, that in languages that use masculine, feminine and neuter, it is called gender, not sexual identity.

So basically, when translating to a language like English, which has no gender identity with the nouns, unless it is a person, the neuter is used.

Of course, that might have been a different convention back in the 16th century when the KJV was translated.

Thanks for taking the time to look at it for me... much appreciated. So if I'm understanding you right, the Hebrew words do not indicate any gender for the soul nor tiṯ-hal-lêl, but that does not mean that either or both of them don't have gender. In other words the Hebrew is vague as to whether the soul is feminine or not. Another in other words lol, the soul could be "it", "him" or "her" but the Hebrew doesn't tells us which.... that gave me a headache trying to write that!

 

[slave]

i do not knowingly or willingly commit any sins. if i do sin, it is not intentionally. Strange thing for Jesus to teach and say to a woman and a man to "Go and sin no more" if that was NOT what they were suppose to do. Is it not written to get rid of the sin that so easily besets you. Why would the Apostles teach us how NOT to sin, if it was not required for us to do so? But here is what sin is though, when you fail to LOVE ONE ANOTHER, you commit sin.

Under the old covenant you commit sin by breaking a law, statutes, or an ordinance. Such as if a person stole something from another, they commit sin because they break the law Thou shalt not steal.
Under the new covenant you commit sin by not Loving one another. Such as if a person stole something from another, they commit sin because they failed to love the one they stole from.

1Jn 3:22 And whatsoever we ask, we receive of him, because we keep his commandments, and do those things that are pleasing in his sight.
1Jn 3:23 And this is his commandment, That we should 1) believe on the name of his Son Jesus Christ, and 2) LOVE ONE ANOTHER, as he gave us commandment.
1Jn 3:24 And he that keepeth his commandments dwelleth in him, and he in him. And hereby we know that he abideth in us, by the Spirit which he hath given us.

Jesus only dwells in those who LOVE ONE ANOTHER, NOT those who fail to LOVE ONE ANOTHER.

^i^

There are many specific sins... some are specifically stated in the bible some are implied by principle...yet the broad base description of sin is : Romans 14:23: Everything that does not come from faith is sin. And faith means a complete trust in God thru Jesus Christ, and the belief in His sacrifice on a cross. We know that from the verse that tells us the only way to the Father is thru Jesus Christ. He even switches that and says we are to live by faith, so if our complete belief in the things of God is our sinless life we must conclude the opposite of that life is Sin. If He has claimed victory over sin we too will have it or we will be outside of faithfulness in Christ...which is a____.

 

[slave]

There are many specific sins... some are specifically stated in the bible some are implied by principle...yet the broad base description of sin is : Romans 14:23: Everything that does not come from faith is sin. And faith means a complete trust in God thru Jesus Christ, and the belief in His sacrifice on a cross. We know that from the verse that tells us the only way to the Father is thru Jesus Christ. He even switches that and says we are to live by faith, so if our complete belief in the things of God is our sinless life we must conclude the opposite of that life is Sin. If He has claimed victory over sin we too will have it or we will be outside of faithfulness in Christ...which is a____.

Love the Lord with all your heart, with all your soul, and all your mind this is the greatest commandment, the second is as you indicated Dave, Love your neighbor as yourself. Matt. 22:36-39. , and etc etc