Dan.9:27
"He will confirm a covenant with many for one 'seven.' In the middle of the 'seven' he will put an end to sacrifice and offering. And at the temple he will set up an abomination that causes desolation, until the end that is decreed is poured out on him."
Daniel 9:
[SUP]27[/SUP] And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.
This illustrates quite vividly just how important it is to be studying the right bible version. If your bible version says what is in the quote above -- "it's no wonder why you cannot come to know the truth about the End Times Scenario" -- because, what the Word of God
actually says has been 'perverted' by whatever bible version that is in the quote above.
What is wrong with the wording in the quote above? Here are just a few points-of-error:
~ 'a' covenant is not the same as 'the' covenant -- big difference in meaning!
~ "he will put an end to sacrifice and offering" is not the same as "he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease"; the first has the "sense and tense" of 'forever after', the second does not.
You see -- the Word of God is not saying that it was 'forever'; only that it 'ceased' - allowing for it to be [ only ] temporary. When Christ died on the cross - and the veil in the temple was rent from top to bottom - it [
immediately ] caused the sacrifice and the oblation to 'cease' -- this is the primary significance ( '
immediately' ) in the way it is worded. It does not mean that the Jews never started it / them back up again. It means 'just' - and 'only' - what it [ actually ] says. To assume it means 'ended forever' would be incorrect. If the Jews repaired the veil and started it / them back up again - "then fine" - if they did not - "then still fine" - do you see what I am getting at?
The Word of God is not saying "put an end to" [
forever ] -- it is only saying [
immediately ] "caused [ it ] to cease" --- do you see the [ vast ] difference in the "sense and tense" of these two ways of wording it?
If you look up the Strongs definition for the word 'cease' in Daniel 9:27, you will find that it leans heavily in the direction of '
immediately' ( as I have just described ) rather than in the direction of '
forever' ( as I have just described ).
There are 'fine-point' meanings like this throughout the Bible. And, it is
vitally important to be able to understand these kinds of things when studying the Bible. However, if you are studying a 'perverted' bible version - which is "missing" these 'find-point' meanings --- you will
"never-ever-ever" be able to correctly interpret properly what the Word of God is actually saying -- because, the 'perverted' bible version has been corrupted by the "translators" that wrote it.
~ "until the end that is decreed is poured out on him"
is nowhere even close to "that determined shall be poured upon the desolate"
To begin with -- the meaning of "even until the consummation" has been removed entirely! And, it "goes with" the phrase before it, not the one after it - which is where that translation tried to put it! And, what is this "poured out
on him" thing all about? That's not what the Word of God says...!
It is totally "messed up"...