You stated... that you believe God elects to heaven and that you do not believe he condemns to hell (I agree, but will elaborate on this), then you followed with... you believe the scriptures teach that God allows mankind a free choice to choose how he wants to live his life here on earth and by man's choice he condemns himself to hell (I agree, and if God casts them to hell is because the life they chose on earn to not serve God, brought this condemnation upon them), and then you follow with... you do not believe the scriptures teach that there are requirements that man has to do in order to be eternally saved and that the scriptures teach that eternal salvation is by God's sovereign grace without the help of man.
First, I never stated that man works to earn salvation and never insinuated such a false doctrine, but to believe in an act of love that God demonstrated on the cross through his Son to gracefully give salvation is not an act of work to them that believe. You stated that God allows mankind a free choice to choose how he wants to live his life here on earth and that by man's choice to not serve God he condemns himself to hell. If man can choose how he wants to live and he chooses not to serve God ultimately condemning himself to hell, then in the same manner, man can choose the gift of salvation that God offers and in choosing he decided that he wants to serve God, nothing to do with earning salvation.
Ephesians 2:8.9 states... For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast. Is faith in God to obtain the free gift of God works? It is safely to say that according to your view faith is not required because God elects without works. What I am trying to convey to you in the above is that believing or exercising faith in God is not works, just like Elijah called fire from heaven, it was his faith that allow God to cause fire to come out of heaven, it was not his works.
God is absolutely sovereign, therefore, he can call it as it was. He has chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love, yet we did not come into existence until we were born. Question, did he choose those who did not serve him before the foundation of the world to come into existence? I am asking this question to convey that God is absolutely sovereign, he can call due to his foreknowledge, so he knows all existence prior to existence. Romans 9:11 says... for the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth. Now, Rebekah was barren and God in his sovereign called existence before the actual birth. Isaac's faith in God was the act that caused God's word to come to past and God beforehand knew that he would pray. Romans 4:17 says ... God calleth those things which be not as though they were and this is because of his sovereignty. 2 Chronicles 7:14 God says, if my people, which are called by my name, shall humble themselves, and pray, and seek my face, and turn from their wicked ways; then will I hear from heaven, and will forgive their sin, and will heal their land. This states that Israel had to act, nothing to do with works, same with believing, nothing to do with work.
I know where you stand and the difference between us is that I believe one has to believe, one decide if he what to serve God, you believe there is no decision, that God elects, but he does not sent people to hell. Being the later is correct that God does not condemn to hell, but that people choose to go there not serving, I will not state that you are introducing a false doctrine, the theology in elect and decision does not insinuate false doctrine, unless one says God sends to hell what Calvinism state.
