Woman can't teach in the congregation

Wow!

Why not just except Paul's authority on this matter as pertaining to the church? His teaching should be sufficient, and excepted. I believe as pertaining to 1 Corinthians 14:35 where Paul is referring back to the law as you pointed out in Genesis 3:16 clearly shows the order of authority that God has set up, the man ruling over the woman. Thusly, we see the harmony in what Paul wrote in 1 Cor.14: 38 and what is stated in Genesis 3:16. Authority in the home and authority in the church rest upon the men. This subject is probably one of the clearest teachings in the New Testament. To undermine Paul's authority and teaching is going against God, not me or anyone else who holds to proper biblical church order.

I don't accept (not "except") as authoritative those statements that are inexplicable. Genesis 3:16 does not command husbands to rule over wives. It most certainly does not command men to rule over women, yet this is how you are interpreting it. If Genesis 3:16 is a command, then all of the verse is a command, and you make your god into a monster who wants women to suffer in childbirth.

If this were a command, it would be the only command in the entire Bible where the object of the command (rather than the subject) is addressed. God does not say to Adam, "You shall rule over your wife"; He says to Eve, "Your husband shall rule over you." That is a statement of certain consequence, not a command.

If the order of creation were relevant for hierarchy, you need to submit to the plants, for they were formed first. Paul's letter to Timothy was addressing a prevalent heresy in that cultural context. It makes perfect sense in that context, and does not otherwise. Further, Eve's deception was never placed on all women. Women in general are not more subject to deception, as many men think.

As to your final sentence, it's an irrelevant appeal. Save it for those who don't recognize blatant logical fallacies.

Women were clearly serving the churches but NOT as elders, pastors, and teachers.

That would have been a violation of God's commandment. And that is what you and some others are advocating.

What you are saying is that you don't except what you don't like, if you excepted scripture as infallible, inerrant and inspired of God, you would have no problem submitting to the Apostle Paul's teaching. You don't agree with Paul nor do you agree with God, you have a problem with the order set forth by God. Oh, I forgot, God's order to you is a blatant logical fallacy! (your own words)

What you are saying is that you don't except what you don't like, if you excepted scripture as infallible, inerrant and inspired of God, you would have no problem submitting to the Apostle Paul's teaching. You don't agree with Paul nor do you agree with God, you have a problem with the order set forth by God. Oh, I forgot, God's order to you is a blatant logical fallacy! (your own words)

What commandment of God states explicitly that women cannot serve in the church in a position of authority.

Come on. You know very well what God has spelled out. AND IGNORANCE IS NOT AN EXCUSE.

Sorry about the spelling error in my previous post. I believe I will leave this subject alone. I am perplexed and confounded that areas of scripture where no interpretation is needed how truth can be so misconstrued. I am satisfied to just read God's word and believe it for what it says. I realize there are areas of the bible that require deep thought and contemplation, but I am carful not to spiritualize and mystify very clear bible passages. Blessings to you all.

Besides that, it is apparent that Paul was stating his own opinion on certain matters based solely on his own observations that were related to the customs and culture at the time. Everything in the bible is truthfully stated but not everything in the bible is a statement of truth

I think the following puts that theory to rest:

1 Cor. 14:34-37 "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law. And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church. What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only? If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord."

I think Paul knew there would be contensions on this subject so he was sure to include this message was from God.

Another instance where Paul affirms that he is only giving Christ instructions:
1 Tim. 2:7 "Whereunto I am ordained a preacher, and an apostle, (I speak the truth in Christ, and lie not a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and verity." Verity is truth!

Then he immediately affirms what he taught to the Corinthians:
1 Tim. 2:11, 12 "Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence." I rest my case.

Well said tourist, but still the people I sometimes congregate with absolutely think no women preaching. The women even believe that. I just wanted people to know of these groups, that they exist, and they are numerous.

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Come on. You know very well what God has spelled out. AND IGNORANCE IS NOT AN EXCUSE.

I'm not sure about the book of Speculations and what it says, but 1 Corinthians 14:34- 35 is crystal clear on the matter. You have to twist and contort the plain, clear writings of Paul to the Corinthians concerning teaching and preaching in the church to conclude otherwise. Anyone without an agenda, never having read 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 would have no trouble understanding the context as well as the teaching. An honest commentary of these verses can only have one result. " The Bible means what it says, all we have to do is believe it".

c) Does it have to be Moses' law? It can be also civil law, "natural law" etc.

I know of no instance in Paul's writings where he uses the words the law to refer to anything other than the law of Moses. When he refers to law in another sense (e.g., Romans 3:27) it's always law.

Why not just except Paul's authority on this matter as pertaining to the church? His teaching should be sufficient, and excepted. I believe as pertaining to 1 Corinthians 14:35 where Paul is referring back to the law as you pointed out in Genesis 3:16 clearly shows the order of authority that God has set up, the man ruling over the woman. Thusly, we see the harmony in what Paul wrote in 1 Cor.14: 38 and what is stated in Genesis 3:16. Authority in the home and authority in the church rest upon the men. This subject is probably one of the clearest teachings in the New Testament. To undermine Paul's authority and teaching is going against God, not me or anyone else who holds to proper biblical church order.

I know of no instance in Paul's writings where he uses the words the law to refer to anything other than the law of Moses. When he refers to law in another sense (e.g., Romans 3:27) it's always law.