Exodus 33:20> And he said, Thou canst not see my face: for there shall no man see me, and live.
John 1:18> No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared Him.
John 5:37> And the Father Himself,which hath sent Me, had born witness of Me, ye have neither heard His voice at any time, nor seen His shape.
1 John 4:12> No man hath seen God at any time, if we love one another, God dwells in us, and His love His perfect in us
When Jesus was seen by over 500 witnesses,
after He was resurrected,
Did the witnesses see Him,
and see His face?
I noticed there many pages of comments, questions, etc. So I did
not read through all of your posts or all of the posts on the entirety of the thread. So if you were asked these questions and would like to direct me to the post number which you addressed this I would appreciate that.
I am going to try to make a case that what you are doing is actually building the foundation FOR the Trinity (good job!) even though what you are doing is trying to ask "gotcha" questions. Sorry, it doesn't work like that. So I would like to quote these same scriptures back at you with a few more passages you may have overlooked and possibly, time permitting, you will be able to reply back. Okay..
You quoted from Exodus 33 and John 1:18, both texts which I will also refer to. You have a multitude of passages in the Old Testament (tanakh) which clearly state God can be seen and has been seen. The first text I will draw from is Genesis 32.
Genesis 32:31 (verse 30 in English-Christian translations)
יִּקְרָ֧א יַעֲקֹ֛ב שֵׁ֥ם הַמָּקֹ֖ום פְּנִיאֵ֑ל כִּֽי־רָאִ֤יתִי אֱלֹהִים֙ פָּנִ֣ים אֶל־פָּנִ֔ים וַתִּנָּצֵ֖ל נַפְשִֽׁי
"And Jacob called the name of the place peniel (face of God), for I have seen God face to face and my life (lit. soul) is preserved.
So, this is one of the clearest passages where Jacob has seen God. First it says it's a man, then it says it's God, and then it says it's an angel. Well, Jacob clearly believed he saw God. He named the place "peniel" which means face of God. Um, does that mean he saw God's face? He goes on to say why he says this by saying "ki ra'iti elohim panim el-panim", for I have
seen God
face to face (panim el-panim). Are we to believe this? Does this fit into our theology? Can we "allow the scriptures to speak" ?
Isaiah and Amos had similar encounters with God. Read the accounts in Isaiah 6 and Amos 9. They both say the same phrase "ראיתי את-אדני", ra'iti 'et 'adonai,
I have seen my Lord. Trust me, Isaiah and Amos both knew the Torah, they knew Exodus 33 where it says "לֹֽא־ יִרְאַ֥נִי הָאָדָ֖ם וָחָֽי" lo yir'ani ha'adam vachai, no human can see me and live. So, Isaiah was ready to die! Isaiah continues on in chapter 6 verse 5 and says "אוי לי" oy li! Woe is me! He was prepared to die! But what happened? Neither Isaiah, Amos, Jacob, Moses, Ezekiel, (the list goes ) have died when they saw God.
John 1:18 makes it very explicit no man has ever seen the Father except the Son. So, what does this mean? How are we to understand these passages where God was clearly seen? Well, in light of a host of passages in the NT which declare the deity of ישוע܇/Yeshua/Jesus as the Son of God, who is God incarnate. We can understand all of these mysteries and more! Colossians 1:15 "He [The Son] is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation." Amazing! So, yes it's true no one has seen God, the Father! But, they saw the Son. Anytime God was visible in the Old Testament or in the Person of Jesus, it was the Son of God!
That is the only thing that makes sense to me or we are stuck with the question, how can God be seen and yet unseen at the same time? Visible and yet invisible? Are only
some passages in the Bible true? Or are they all true like 2nd Timothy 3:16 says "All Scripture
is given by inspiration of God...." Consider why Paul and Peter both say " looking for the blessed hope and glorious appearing of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ" and "...by the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ: " (ref. Titus 2:13, 2 Peter 1:1.. How could they call Jesus our great God and Savior? (Isaiah 9:6 (9:5 in Hebrew/Jewish-English translations) says the child will be called "אל גבור /el gibor" - Mighty God. Psalm 45.. Etc, etc.. Think of how Thomas could say in John 20:28 "...my Lord and my God!" and instead of being rebuked Jesus blesses him and says "blessed are you..." Please consider this....
This is something that takes a while to understand and to fathom, but once you get it you really "get it!" it makes sense and it will bring a host of passages to light for you.
Psalm 119:18
גַּל־עֵינַ֥י וְאַבִּ֑יטָה נִ֝פְלָאֹ֗ות מִתֹּורָתֶֽךָ
gal-'einai v'abitah nifla'ot mitoratekha
Open my eyes that I may see terrific wonders from your torah [law, instructions]
Amen, let that prayer be true for all of us.
Blessings.