Why the king james?

[eternally-gratefull]

Absolutely it does. Are you justified by your faith or the faith of Christ? That's HUGE! You can't have it both ways.

Yeah I actually can.

I can have the faith Christ had at one time

Yet it is my faith, Because God never forces his faith on anyone.

Man dude, one good thing about listening to you is to be thankful I am not part of your cult anymore.. How crazy I must have looked to all my friends and coworkers when i acted like you are.

 

[John146]

Thank you much for your service. God bless you.

I do not agree with everything in our constitution.

But I defended it for 15 years with my life in the military.

we do it every day.. Wow man.. just wow

 

[tourist]

I do not agree with everything in our constitution.

But I defended it for 15 years with my life in the military.

we do it every day.. Wow man.. just wow

I did it myself for 4 years. Somebody has to do it. Freedom is not free but often comes at a great price. Thank you for serving our country.

 

[PeacefulWarrior]

Okay, I think it is the people who wrote books that causes divisions and people who read them are confuse.

Perhaps with some books -- not in the context of this argument.

 

[PeacefulWarrior]

Do you KJV-only (nuts) even LOGOS?

 

[PeacefulWarrior]

Sorry man I just get sick and tired of people who don't know anything about Christianity and the bible trying to convince people the KJV is wrong.

The KJV ain't wrong man.

You're wrong when you say all other versions are evil.

We've put this pretty plainly multiple times.

 

[PeacefulWarrior]

One body, one Spirit, one faith, one Lord and many versions...makes sense.

When is human logic sufficient for God? We walk by faith, not by sight.

Besides, your logic is flawed; recall the Tower of Babel story (or just look around and realize there are thousands of languages in this world).

 

[PeacefulWarrior]

Do you KJV-only (nuts) even LOGOS?

I sincerely love you KJV-only nuts and would like to do a Word study with you.

Lo·gos
ˈlōˌɡōs,-ˌɡäs/
noun THEOLOGY

noun: Logos

• the Word of God, or principle of divine reason and creative order, identified in the Gospel of John with the second person of the Trinity incarnate in Jesus Christ.
  
  
  

Let's look at John 1:1

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (NIV)
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (ESV)
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (BSB)
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (NASB)

and the beloved KJV reads (the same):

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (KJV)

Here's a version where the text has been "changed":

In the beginning the Word already existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was God. (NLT)

Does the change in VERBIAGE change the meaning? No.

Alright, now let's look at a CULT version. Here's Joseph Smith Translation which is used by Mormons of the Church of Christ of Latter Day Saints:

In the beginning was the gospel preached through the Son. And the gospel was the word, and the word was with the Son, and the Son was with God, and the Son was of God.

Do we see a change in meaning here? YES! "of God" is different than "was God" -- the JST (or LDS version) ignores the deity of Christ!

Okay, now let's look at anotherCULT version. Here's the New World Translation which is used by Jehovah's Witnesses:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.

Do we see a change in meaning here? YES! "a god" is quite different than "was God" -- the JW's deny the deity of Christ!

There is absolutely nothing wrong with using parallel translations or versions in order to better know God's Word. The Joseph Smith and New World versions are not parallels.

 

[John146]

See post #1246. There are many verses when words are changed, doctrine is changed. And it's been pointed out before...what about the doctrine of the "only begotten" not found in modern versions?

I sincerely love you KJV-only nuts and would like to do a Word study with you.

Lo·gos
ˈlōˌɡōs,-ˌɡäs/
noun THEOLOGY

noun: Logos

• the Word of God, or principle of divine reason and creative order, identified in the Gospel of John with the second person of the Trinity incarnate in Jesus Christ.
  
  
  

Let's look at John 1:1

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (NIV)
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (ESV)
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (BSB)
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (NASB)

and the beloved KJV reads (the same):

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (KJV)

Here's a version where the text has been "changed":

In the beginning the Word already existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was God. (NLT)

Does the change in VERBIAGE change the meaning? No.

Alright, now let's look at a CULT version. Here's Joseph Smith Translation which is used by Mormons of the Church of Christ of Latter Day Saints:

In the beginning was the gospel preached through the Son. And the gospel was the word, and the word was with the Son, and the Son was with God, and the Son was of God.

Do we see a change in meaning here? YES! "of God" is different than "was God" -- the JST (or LDS version) ignores the deity of Christ!

Okay, now let's look at anotherCULT version. Here's the New World Translation which is used by Jehovah's Witnesses:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.

Do we see a change in meaning here? YES! "a god" is quite different than "was God" -- the JW's deny the deity of Christ!

There is absolutely nothing wrong with using parallel translations or versions in order to better know God's Word. The Joseph Smith and New World versions are not parallels.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

I did it myself for 4 years. Somebody has to do it. Freedom is not free but often comes at a great price. Thank you for serving our country.

My country is still free. Free to spread the gospel. That is worth giving your life for. so people can freely come to God and worship him..

 

[PeacefulWarrior]

See post #1246. There are many verses when words are changed, doctrine is changed. And it's been pointed out before...what about the doctrine of the "only begotten" not found in modern versions?

Your post #1246 does not display any doctrinal errors. In fact, you used the ESV's wording, "in Christ" to support your argument below:

One of the doctrines that did it for me is in the difference of one word in Galatians 2:16, "of" and "in." You can find it in other places as well.

KJV "Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified."

ESV "yet we know that a person is not justified by works of the law but through faith in Jesus Christ, so we also have believed in Christ Jesus, in order to be justified by faith in Christ and not by works of the law, because by works of the law no one will be justified."

There is a HUGE difference in the two. Being justified by the faith of Christ lets me know that being justified is not about my puny faith which waivers day by day, but in Christ's faith that never waivers.

I hope that you can begin to see that we are brothers and not enemies.

...what about the doctrine of the "only begotten" not found in modern versions?

NASB and NKJV are modern versions. They read:

For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life. (NASB)

For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life. (NKJV)

This article answers the question quite well:

The phrase "only begotten" translates the Greek word monogenes. This word is variously translated into English as "only," "one and only," and "only begotten."

 

[KJV1611]

Actually they say the same thing.

1. KJV uses a word for word interpretation. thus justified is the word to translate.
2. NIV uses a word which actually interpreted the word justified (declared or considered righteous) which actually makes the NIV more helpfull in its interpretation. since the word "justified" is not a well known term used today.

saying the words "justified by work" KJV or "considered righteous by his works" are saying the same thing.. the term "justified" would actually be more confusing to a young english reader who is not versed in biblical language.

Read the verses again.

KJV - Abraham's FAITH was justified as being real by his works... get it? Abraham wasn't justified before God by his works.
NIV - Abraham was MADE RIGHTEOUSE by his works.

Seriously those two versions are night and day. True gospel and false gospel... I can't believe you would defend a blatant error like that.

 

[PeacefulWarrior]

Read the verses again.

KJV - Abraham's FAITH was justified as being real by his works... get it? Abraham wasn't justified before God by his works.
NIV - Abraham was MADE RIGHTEOUSE by his works.

Seriously those two versions are night and day. True gospel and false gospel... I can't believe you would defend a blatant error like that.

I grew up on NIV and it is my favorite version.

I can't believe you can be in blatant error and remain too stubborn and hard-headed to see your error!

 

[PeacefulWarrior]

Ecc 10:12

The words of a wise man's mouth are gracious; but the lips of a fool will swallow up himself. (KJV)

Words from the mouth of the wise are gracious, but fools are consumed by their own lips. (NIV)

Wise words bring approval,
but fools are destroyed by their own words. (NLT)

The NIV might be my favorite -- but I also find the NLT to be very beneficial.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Read the verses again.

KJV - Abraham's FAITH was justified as being real by his works... get it? Abraham wasn't justified before God by his works.
NIV - Abraham was MADE RIGHTEOUSE by his works.

Seriously those two versions are night and day. True gospel and false gospel... I can't believe you would defend a blatant error like that.

Read the greek. and try to study it so you can stop making yourself look bad.

Justifed = made righteous.

I can't believe you are so bent on proving your right, you refuse to see the truth.

They are not two gospels. they say the exact same thing, If you would get out of your KJV only blindness, you would see this. .

 

[KJV1611]

I grew up on NIV and it is my favorite version.

I can't believe you can be in blatant error and remain too stubborn and hard-headed to see your error!

Ok then correct me, in the KJV was Abraham justified before God by his works? Was Abraham made righteous through his works like the NIV says? Don't forget about the verse below now.

Romans 4:2 KJV
For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Your post #1246 does not display any doctrinal errors. In fact, you used the ESV's wording, "in Christ" to support your argument below:



I hope that you can begin to see that we are brothers and not enemies.



NASB and NKJV are modern versions. They read:

For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life. (NASB)

For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life. (NKJV)

This article answers the question quite well:

The phrase "only begotten" translates the Greek word monogenes. This word is variously translated into English as "only," "one and only," and "only begotten."

Kind of hard to understand when your stuck in old english theology.

 

[KJV1611]

Read the greek. and try to study it so you can stop making yourself look bad.

Justifed = made righteous.

I can't believe you are so bent on proving your right, you refuse to see the truth.

They are not two gospels. they say the exact same thing, If you would get out of your KJV only blindness, you would see this. .

KJV1611 was justified in calling EG a liar because he gave a false definition of justified.... Am I now righteous?

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Ok then correct me, in the KJV was Abraham justified before God by his works? Was Abraham made righteous through his works like the NIV says? Don't forget about the verse below now.

Romans 4:2 KJV
For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.

smh,, this is getting out of hand, Can people really be this off that they refuse to investigate?

Justified in James 2: 21 is the greek word dikaioo it means to be justified, to declare righteous, to make free, justice, righteousness, set right, vindicate, to put right, to show to be right, to aquite, to set free (of debt) to pronounce and treat someone as righteous, to be shown to be righteous,

James is saying a fact. Abraham was seen to be righteous. or proven to be a righteous man, becauae he had works. as apposed to the people James were talking to who had a faith by profession only. There faith was proven to be dead, because they had no work.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

KJV1611 was justified in calling EG a liar because he gave a false definition of justified.... Am I now righteous?

well KJV is the liar. Because he did not look up the meaning of the greek word used. And lost his character when he called EG a liar, when EG was not a liar at all. EG even proved what he said with the greek word and the defenitions of that word..