Here is 2 Cor. 5:21 translated;
“For Him who knew no Sin, He made a Sin-offering on our behalf, that we might become God’s Righteousness in Him” (Emphatic Diaglott).
“For the One not knowing sin, He makes [Gk. Aorist - not past tense] to be a sin offering for our sakes that we may be becoming God’s righteousness in Him” (Concordant N.T.).
This is the proper order too. It should not be “for He made Him sin,” the first phrase is “For Him who knew no Sin.”
Fifty-four (54) times in the book of Leviticus alone… one book, we see the words ‘sin’ all by itself s-i-n, sin translated sin offering. Guess what? The word offering is never found in italics in those places, because it is a part of the translation, it means ‘sin offering.’ The word offering is understood. In all fifty-four the King James got it right, but in the New Testament they apparently or conveniently forgot that Christ, who was indeed “our PASSOVER,” was therefore also our “sin OFFERING.”
1 Cor. 5:7 Therefore purge out the old leaven, that you may be a new lump, since you truly are unleavened. For indeed Christ, our Passover, was sacrificed for us.
Christ is our Passover. The Passover lamb was an offering, it was a sacrifice, it was not ‘the’ sin of Israel. It was a offering - a sacrifice. Jesus Christ is that sacrifice, He is that Passover, it says so. Now was that Passover lamb ‘the’ sin or was it just a sacrifice ‘for’ sin?
Lev 4:20 And he shall do6213 with the bullock6499 as834 he did6213 with the bullock6499 for a sin offering,2403 so3651 shall he do6213 with this: and the priest3548 shall make an atonement3722 for5921 them, and it shall be forgiven5545 them.
I left the numbers right in there, you can see the Hebrew word # 2403 you’ve got two words “sin offerings” for the one word. If you look up that #2403 it will give you the definition of sin, not the definition of offering. How come they translate it sin offering? Because all Hebrews knew that that’s what it meant.
If Hebrews don’t understand their own language, how are we going to translate anything? By whose authority are we going to translate Hebrew Scripture if the Hebrews don’t understand their own language? Can we see how they did it? What justification is there for saying Christ is made sin, period? He was made a ‘sin offering’ and the Scripture proves it, fifty-four times in the book of Leviticus alone.
Lev 4:24 And he shall lay5564 his hand3027 upon5921 the head7218 of the goat,8163 and kill7819 it in the place4725 where834 they kill7819 (853) the burnt offering5930 before6440 the LORD:3068 it1931 is a sin offering.2403
Did you notice “burnt offering,” there is one Hebrew word next to it. Do you think that word defines the word offering? No… burnt, what does burnt mean? It means a burnt offering, that’s what the word means.
Lev 4:29 And he shall lay5564 (853) his hand3027 upon5921 the head7218 of the sin offering,2403 and slay7819 (853) the sin offering2403 in the place4725 of the burnt offering.5930
Notice that in every case, “sin offering” is translated from only one word, not two and that one word [Heb. chattaah - stands for “sin” and not for offering]. Offering is understood. Notice in the Scripture that the same is true for “burnt offering.”
Sin-offering is an alternate meaning of hamartia found in the Greek Old Testament. Since the apostles and the church at Corinth mainly used the Septuagint, they undoubted understood that hamartis [Gk: For ‘sin’] could mean a sin-offering. This was not an ambiguous, obscure, or hard to understand passage for those Greek Christians who received this letter, or other early Christians who read it later.” (Redemption Realized Through Christ By Leland M. Haines)
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